Documentos de Académico
Documentos de Profesional
Documentos de Cultura
1995: Exam 1
PART I. (60 points)
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested
answers or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which
is best in each case.
6. Membrane fluidity
A. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids increases.
B. increases as the percent of unsaturated fatty acids decreases.
C. increases as the length of fatty acid side chains increases.
D. is independent of the nature of fatty acids.
E. increases as the percent of saturated fatty acids increases.
8. Which of the following groups contains only amino acids with side
chains capable of participating exclusively in hydrophobic bonding
when found in proteins?
A. Thr, Asp, Glu
B. Leu, Lys, Val
C. Ile, Leu, Lys
D. Val, Leu, Ala
E. Arg, Ile, Val
small steps.
correct EXCEPT
as follows
A. -C-N-C-S-
B. -C-N-N-C-
C. -C-O-C-N-
D. -C-N-C-C-
E. -C-C-C-N-
generalization is that
D. the amino acid residues which form the active site are
effector of an enzyme? 4
A. a competitive inhibitor
B. a noncompetitive inhibitor
in the enzyme
20. Which one of the following statements about the maximum velocity
22. All of the following statements about allosteric enzymes are true
EXCEPT
sigmoid shaped.
and products.
A. hydrogen bonding.
B. hydrophobic interactions.
C. ionic interactions.
D. disulfide bonding.
outer leaflets.
bilayer.
LDH isozymes
a concentration gradient
A. asymmetric structure
pointing inwards
B. hydrolyze ATP
ANSWERS
1C 2C 3A 4D 5A 6A 7B 8D 9E
10B 11D 12B 13A 14E 15C 16C 17D 18D
19D 20B 21D 22E 23C 24E 25B 26D 27E
28C 29D 30E
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
EXAM 2
September 11, 1995
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. ATP synthase
B. phosphoglycerate kinase
C. pyruvate kinase
D. succinyl CoA synthetase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
12. What is the Eo' for the transfer of electrons to oxygen from
the
FADH2 that is covalently bound to succinate dehydrogenase?
A. +1.14
B. +0.78
C. +0.82 11
D. +1.12
E. -1.14
13. Which of the following cannot be directly transported across the
mitochondrial inner membrane?
1. NADH
2. oxaloacetate
3. acetylCoA
4. pyruvate
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
18. Which of the following does not occur in liver cells after an
extended fasting period?
A. outer membrane.
B. inter-membrane space.
C. inner membrane.
D. matrix.
E. knobs protruding from the inner membrane as visualized
using negative staining techniques.
A. 0
B. 1.5
C. 2.5
D. 3.5
E. 4.5
A. glucose-6-phosphatase
B. pyruvate carboxylase
C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
D. phosphoglycerate kinase
E. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
27. Transketolase
A. all but the first two carbons of the growing acyl chain
come directly from malonyl CoA
B. FADH2 reduces the alpha-keto group
C. ATP is cleaved in the dehydration step
D. the growing acyl chain is attached to coenzyme A
E. the product is released after a chain of 24 carbons is
synthesized
1995: Exam 3
1. Enzymes that incorporate free ammonia into forms useful for the
central pathways of amino acid metabolism include
A. aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthase II and adenosine deaminase
C. alpha-ketoglutarate aminotransferase and phosphoserine 15
transaminase
D. glutamine synthetase and glutamate dehydrogenase
E. phenylalanine hydroxylase and cystathionase
6. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
A. is required for both purine and pyrimidine synthesis
B. is a ribonucleotide
C. is synthesized from AMP and ribose
D. is a substrate for the first step of UMP biosynthesis
E. synthesis is blocked by aminopterin
12. An amino acid that requires reactions in two tissues for synthesis
in a pathway that has several intermediates similar to the urea cycle
is
A. glutamine
B. histidine
C. arginine
D. glycine
E. cystine
14. The branched chain amino acids valine and isoleucine are both
glucogenic because
A. they are metabolized yielding propionyl CoA which can be
further metabolized to a citric acid cycle intermediate
B. during their breakdown electrons are harvested and passed
on to ubiquinone in the mitochondrial electron transport
system
C. their metabolism yields both acetoacetate and acetylCoA
D. the first step in their breakdown involves transamination
of alpha-ketoglutarate to form glutamate which can be used
as a fuel for glucose synthesis
E. an intermediate in their catabolism is an acylCoA
17
15. Which of the following is not true concerning reduction of
ribonucleotides?
A. ribonucleoside diphosphates are the substrates that are
reduced by ribonucleotide reductase
B. NADPH provides the reducing power for synthesis of
deoxyribonucleotides
C. each of the four ribonucleotides are reduced by a specific
isozyme of ribonucleotide reductase
D. two proteins, thioredoxin and thioredoxin reductase,
are necessary to maintain ribonucleotide reductase in its
active reduced state
E. the mechanism of ribonucleotide reductase involves an
unusual tyrosine free radical
activity (ACAT)
activity
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. 5'-nucleotidase
B. xanthine oxidase
C. xanthine dehydrogenase
D. adenosine deaminase
from phosphatidylcholine is
A. acylCoA:cholesterol acyltransferase
B. glycerolphosphate acyltransferase 19
C. lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase
D. lipoprotein lipase
E. pancreatic lipase
by feedback inhibition
lipoprotein complexes?
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
treatment for high cholesterol levels with bile acid sequestrants such
as
cholestyramine?
1. triglycerides
2. vitamin E
3. vitamin A
4. vitamin K
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
directly to the liver following digestion and uptake into the small
intestine EXCEPT?
A. glucose
B. triglycerides
C. leucine
D. glutamine
E. glutamate
30. Amino groups derived from amino acid catabolism in the muscle
3. asparagine
4. glutamine
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
ANSWERS
1D 2A 3E 4E 5C 6A 7B 8E 9B
10E 11B 12C 13B 14A 15C 16D 17C 18A
19C 20D 21D 22D 23D 24C 25B 26A 27C
28E 29B 30C
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
EXAM 4
October 16, 1995
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
1. streptomycin
2. cycloheximide
3. puromycin
4. diphtheria toxin 23
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
15. Telomerase:
1. is an enzyme containing an important RNA component
2. is required for initiation of replication in eukaryotes
3. is required for replicating ends of eukaryotic chromosomes
4. is found in all eukaryotic cells
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. base pairing between the first (5') base of the codon and the
third (3') base of the anticodon
B. base pairing between the first base of the codon and the
first
base of the anticodon
C. base pairing between the third base of the codon and the
first
base of the anticodon
D. base pairing between the third base of the codon and the
third
base of the anticodon
E. none of the above are correct
19. Control by attenuation (as in the trp operon) can occur only in
prokaryotes because:
A. it requires coupling of transcription and translation
B. hairpin loops in RNA are more stable in bacteria
C. prokaryotic genes are often organized as operons
D. eukaryotic transcription does not have specific termination
signals
E. repressor molecules are only found in prokaryotes
1. RFLP analysis
2. Southern blotting of genomic DNA
3. Preparation of a genomic library
4. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
ANSWERS
1C 2E 3C 4B 5B 6A 7A 8A 9C
10B 11D 12C 13C 14A 15B 16C 17D 18D
19A 20A 21B 22D 23E 24E 25A 26B 27C
28E 29C 30C
1995: Exam 5
3. Vitamin D:
1. increases calcium absorbance in the intestine
2. increases resorption of bone
3. is considered a hormone as well as a vitamin
4. is fat soluble
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
4. Heme oxygenase
A. produces biliverdin and CO
B. inserts iron into protoporphyrin
C. oxidizes all of the methene bridges of heme
D. conjugates bilirubin with sugar residues 28
E. reduces iron in heme
5. Myoglobin and hemoglobin both
1. bind heme
2. are highly alpha-helical
3. bind oxygen
4. exhibit positive cooperativity
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
8. The enzyme that directly breaks down fibrin in the normal mechanism
for
clot dissolution is
A. plasmin
B. tPA
C. urokinase
D. streptokinase
E. factor V
11. Iron must be in its reduced form for which of the following?
1. ferrochelatase
2. transferrin binding
3. uptake by intestinal mucosal cells 29
4. storage by ferritin
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 2 only
E. all of them
1. K+
2. Na+
3. Ca++
4. Cl-
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
18. A major difference between cone cells and rod cells in the retina
is that
A. cone cells express different opsins
B. cone cell rhodopsin binds different retinal prosthetic groups
than rod cell rhodopsin
C. cone cells do not use transducin for signalling
D. cone cells are much more sensitive and can function at lower
light levels
E. cone cell rhodopsin can absorb light equally across the full
spectrum rather than only at ~500 nm
22. The target of most antiviral drugs (eg. AZT) currently used to
treat
patients carrying HIV is
A. the viral coat proteins
B. the TAT transactivator
C. the CD4 receptor protein on T cells
D. the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme
E. the viral integrase enzyme
25. The gene which is defective in some familial breast cancers and
encodes a protein containing a zinc finger motif near its amino
terminus
is:
A. ALDH2
B. PRAD1
C. BRCA1
D. FMR1
E. CDK4
28. The action of which enzyme converts a "soft" clot into a "hard"
clot
by crosslinking lysine and glutamine side chains of fibrin?
A. factor IX
B. factor X
C. factor XI
D. factor XII
E. factor XIII
ANSWERS
1E 2C 3E 4A 5D 6A 7B 8A 9D
10D 11B 12A 13C 14C 15A 16B 17A 18A
19D 20E 21A 22D 23A 24C 25C 26B 27B
28E 29B 30C
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
FINAL EXAM
November 17, 1995
(200 points) Each of the following statements is followed by five suggested answers
or completions. On the answer sheet, mark the one which is best in each case.
A. transmethylation reactions.
C. transamination reactions.
D. kinase reactions.
A. no ionized groups.
complex is FALSE?
catalysis continues.
carbon dioxide.
EXCEPT:
A. phosphorylation
B. hydrogen bonding
D. ionic interactions
A. ATP synthase
B. phosphoglycerate kinase
C. pyruvate kinase
11. The signal peptide found at the amino end of proteins destined to
be secreted
1. Ubiquinone
2. cytochrome C
3. FMN
4. Heme b
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
36
13. The major pathway by which mature adult red cells generate ATP is:
A. aerobic metabolism.
B. anaerobic glycolysis.
D. generation of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate.
1. argininosuccinate.
2. carbamoyl phosphate.
3. bicarbonate.
4. arginine.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
E. as precursor of leucine.
16. The absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into mucosal
cells:
37
A. does not require a carrier protein.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
38
19. Which of the following enzymes are unique to gluconeogenesis (as
opposed
to glycolysis)?
1. glucose 6-phosphatase
2. pyruvate kinase
3. PEP carboxykinase
4. aldolase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
be
A. Tryptophan
40
B. Glutamate
C. Arginine
D. Glutathione
cells.
A. intestinal epithelia
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver
B. tyrosinase.
C. homogentisate oxidase.
D. alanine transaminase.
E. phenylalanine hydroxylase.
A. glutathione.
B. pyridoxal phosphate.
C. tetrahydrofolic acid.
D. vitamin K.
E. biotin.
42
A. phosphorylated, inactive
B. sulfated, active
C. pyrophosphorylated, active
D. phosphorylated, active
1. an endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA polymerase I
4. photoreactivatingenzyme
(DNA photolyase)
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
43
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
form of:
D. chylomicrons.
31. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and rate-
limiting
B. citrate lyase
44
C. HMG CoA reductase
D. thiolase
E. mevalonate kinase
1. triglycerides
2. vitamin E
45
3. vitamin A
4. vitamin K
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. all of them
46
E. All of the component reactions occur in skeletal muscle.
which are:
36. Which of the groups below contains two compounds that are parts of
37. Which of the following repair processes occur only in cells that
are actively
1. excision repair
2. mismatch repair
3. photoreactivation
4. recombinational repair
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
49
40. In the liver, increased cyclic AMP leads to increases in the
activity of all
A. glycogen phosphorylase.
C. pyruvate kinase.
D. phosphorylase kinase.
A. ATP.
B. oxygen.
C. inorganic phosphate.
D. pyruvate.
E. acetyl CoA.
50
42. Since the cloning of the HD (Huntington's Disease) gene and
identification
of the specific defect, a genetic screen can be utilized that does not
depend on
access to samples from other family members. This screen utilizes which
of the
following methods:
A. RFLP analysis
B. DNA sequencing
A. an iron-transferrin complex.
B. ferritin.
C. hemoglobin.
51
D. hemosiderin.
in the diet.
45. Which tissue normally has the highest concentration (per gram of
tissue)
of glycogen?
A. adipose tissue
52
B. brain
C. liver
E. skeletal muscle
dehydrogenase?
A. citrate synthase
B. succinyl-CoA synthetase
C. succinic dehydrogenase
D. -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E. isocitrate dehydrogenase
47. Glutamate can be formed directly (one step) from which citric acid
cycle
intermediate?
A. malic acid
53
B. succinic acid
C. alpha-ketoglutarate
D. oxaloacetate
E. fumaric acid
A. lithium
B. theophylline
C. ibuprofin
D. nitroglycerine
E. l-dopa
49. Which of the following is not one of the important criteria that is
considered
54
A. the gene defect must be known and the normal gene must be
cloned and characterized
50. Excess circulating cholesterol (as LDL) can cause health problems
but
2. it is a precursor of vitamin D
A. 1
55
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
51. Aspirin would have the greatest effect on the synthesis of which of
the
following compounds?
A. leukotriene B
B. arachidonic acid
C. progesterone
D. prostaglandin A2
E. diacylglycerol
A. inhibiting topoisomerase II
56
B. alkylating DNA in rapidly growing cells
B. receptor dimerization
D. autophosphorylation (cross-phosphorylation)
55. What vitamin is needed by the liver cell for the synthesis of the
plasma
protein prothrombin?
A. vitamin D.
B. vitamin E.
C. vitamin K.
D. vitamin A.
E. vitamin B12.
56. A molecule produced both in the Krebs cycle and the urea cycle is
A. arginine.
B. aspartate.
C. ornithine.
D. fumarate.
E. citrate.
B. a metal ion.
58. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT which one?
A. helicase.
B. DNA polymerase I.
D. primase.
E. DNA gyrase.
59
60. A number of genetic diseases are a result of abnormal mRNA
splicing. All of the following are involved in splicing EXCEPT:
D. U snRNPs
A. hexokinase.
B. glucose 6-phosphatase.
C. lactate dehydrogenase.
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
= E. glycogen phosphorylase.
62. All of the following compounds are carbon sources for the net
synthesis of
A. lactate.
B. Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
statements is INCORRECT?
60
A. DNA replication is a semiconservative process.
B. gluconeogenesis is increased.
E. ketogenesis is increased.
66. For transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane, long chain
fatty acids are attached to
61
A. coenzyme A.
B. acyl transacylase.
C. phosphatidylethanolamine.
D. acyl transferase.
E. carnitine.
5'-TGCCCAGGCCATGGAACACCAGCTCCTGTGCTGCGAATAAGAAACCATCCGAACG-3'
62
69. Carbon monoxide would be expected to interfere with the function of
A. myosin and myoglobin.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
63
71. Mobilization of fat from adipose tissue requires the enzymatic
activity of:
A. lipoprotein lipase.
B. hormone-sensitive lipase.
C. phospholipase A2.
D. pancreatic lipase.
E. glycerol kinase.
A. trypsin.
B. pepsin.
C. chymotrypsin.
D. carboxypeptidase A.
73. All of the following are true concerning the promoter region of a
gene
EXCEPT
transcription.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. biotin.
65
B. thiamine.
C. pyridoxine.
D. riboflavin.
E. niacin.
77. Bilirubin:
78. When a template strand of DNA with the sequence AGTCAG (5' -> 3')
B. UCAGUC
C. CUGACU
D. CTGACT
E. AGUCAG
79. All of the following statements concerning the first amino acid to
be
EXCEPT:
67
80. In a cancer cell, the involvement of a tumor suppressor gene
A. pyridoxine.
B. thiamine.
C. riboflavin.
D. pantothenic acid.
E. nicotinic acid.
68
82. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
69
83. Which of the following are positive allosteric effectors of
phosphofructokinase-1?
1. ATP
2. fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate
3. citrate
4. AMP
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
70
C. is thought to operate by a binding change mechanism in which
3 substrate binding sites are each in a different
conformation at any
one time
1. glucose.
3. acetoacetate.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
71
E. all of them
is correct?
72
by restriction endonuclease digestion of nuclear
DNA
3. a large number of genomic DNA fragments generated by
restriction endonuclease digestion of human
genomic
DNA
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
88. All of the following directly contribute one or more atoms to the
synthesis
A. glutamine
C. glycine
73
D. arginine
E. aspartate
A. primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure
2. malate dehydrogenase.
3. malic enzyme.
74
4. succinate dehydrogenase.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
75
92. The Na+K+ ATPase transport system
1. require a template
A. 1
76
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
94. All of the following are TRUE concerning sources of energy and
glucose
1. pyruvate kinase.
77
2. hexokinase.
3. phosphofructokinase.
4. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
dehydrogenase.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. starch
B. fatty acids
C. cholesterol
E. nucleic acids
D. protein
following?
A. UDP dUTP
B. dCMP dUMP
D. dUMP dTMP
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
hemophilia A?
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII
E. Factor X
1994: Exam 1
7. Induced fit
A. is a conformational change brought about by the binding
of substrate to an allosteric site.
B. is also known as cooperative binding and requires
enzymes with more than one subunit.
C. occurs when cholesterol becomes embedded in the lipid
bilayer of the plasma membrane.
D. is the change in the absorption spectrum of an enzyme
upon formation of ES complex.
E. is a conformational change evoked by binding of
substrate to the active site of an enzyme.
13. Ligases are enzymes that catalyze which of the following type of
reaction
A. formation of bonds with ATP cleavage.
B. addition to double bonds.
C. hydrolysis reactions.
D. transfer of functional groups.
E. oxidation-reduction reactions.
Type C. Answer the following question using the key outlined below:
A if the item is associated with (A) only
B if the item is associated with (B) only
C if the item is associated with BOTH (A) and (B)
D if the item is associated with NEITHER (A) nor (B)
20. Lysozyme
A. substrate strain
B. general acid catalysis
---------------------------------------------------------------
Type K. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E if all four are correct
ANSWERS TO PART I
1C 2D 3B 4B 5A 6D 7E 8B 9C
10E 11C 12D 13A 14E 15B 16B 17A 18D
19A 20C 21C 22A 23E 24E 25A 26B 27C
28E 29E 30E
1994: Exam 2
15. Fatty acids with an odd number of carbon atoms and certain
branched-chain fatty acids can support the net synthesis of glucose
because they
A. increase the NAD/NADH ratio.
B. can produce methylmalonyl-CoA which is converted to
succinyl-CoA.
C. are converted to malonyl-CoA.
D. yield NADPH on oxidation.
E. are converted to acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate.
17. All of the following are directly associated with the pentose
phosphate pathway EXCEPT
A. transketolase.
B. ribulose 5-phosphate.
C. formation of NADPH.
D. sedoheptulose, a seven carbon sugar.
E. glycerol 3-phosphate.
---------------------------------------------------------
Type B. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if the item is associated with (A) only
B if the item is associated with (B) only
C if the item is associated with BOTH (A) and (B)
D if the item is associated with NEITHER (A) nor (B)
88
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
22. Synthesized in the cells in the pancreas.
Type K. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E if all four are correct
ANSWERS TO PART I
1D 2B 3B 4C 5B 6E 7E 8A 9E
10B 11E 12C 13C 14E 15B 16D 17E 18C
19B 20E 21C 22A 23A 24C 25E 26B 27C
28C 29B 30B 31B
1994: Exam 3
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Examination #3
September 27, 1994
20. Liver is the major site for all of the following processes
EXCEPT
A. transamination of branched chain amino acids.
B. synthesis of urea.
C. synthesis of glucose from alanine.
D. synthesis of ketone bodies.
E. phosphorylation of glycerol.
A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol
Type K. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C of 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E is all four are correct
ANSWERS TO PART I
1C 2B 3C 4D 5D 6A 7B 8E 9B
10C 11A 12A 13A 14D 15A 16C 17C 18A
19E 20A 21C 22C 23A 24A 25A 26A 27A
28A 29D 30B
1994: Exam 4
BIOCHEMISTRY 520 94
Examination #4
October 17, 1994
PART I. (60 points)
2. An anticodon is
A. the part of a DNA molecule which codes for chain
termination.
B. a 3-nucleotide sequence of a mRNA molecule.
C. a specific part of a tRNA molecule.
D. a nucleotide triplet of a rRNA molecule.
E. the portion of a ribosomal subunit which interacts with
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
13. Which of the following protein factors are required for the
addition of an amino acid residue to a growing polypeptide chain during
protein biosynthesis in E. coli?
A. IF-1, IF-2 and IF-3
B. Factor G
C. Factor R
D. Factors Tu and Ts
E. Factor L
14. The degree of homology between DNA from two organisms can most
accurately be determined by
A. base composition.
B. comparing melting curves.
C. density measurements.
D. hybridization.
15. The 70S ribosome contains about 50 separate proteins and one
clearly definable enzymatic activity in protein synthesis. The name of
that activity is
A. 30S dependent ATPase.
B. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
C. elongation factor G.
D. peptidyl transferase. 97
E. None of the others answers is correct.
16. Which one of the following classes of histones is not a
component
of the core particle?
A. H1
B. H2A
C. H2B
D. H3
E. H4
18. Which of the following enzymes is needed only for lagging strand
synthesis at a replication fork?
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase III
C. Helicase
D. SSB
E. Topoisomerase II
Type K. Answer the following questions using the key outlined below:
A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E is all four are correct
1B 2C 3C 4A 5E 6C 7C 8E 9E
10B 11C 12C 13D 14D 15D 16A 17B 18A
19E 20B 21E 22A 23C 24C 25E 26A 27E
28C 29B 30A
1994: Exam 5
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
EXAM #5
November 15, 1994
8. Heme synthesis
A. occurs mainly in the liver.
B. occurs primarily in mitochondria, but begins and ends in
the cytoplasm.
C. is regulated by the rate of synthesis of the globin
protein.
D. is sensitive to lead poisoning.
E. none of the above.
27. Vitamin K
1. is important in blood clotting.
2. is required for the post-translational modification of
glutamic acid residues in specific proteins.
3. participates in reactions which enable certain proteins
to
bind calcium.
4. is synthesized completely within mammalian liver.
ANSWERS TO PART I
104
1E 2E 3D 4B 5E 6C 7A 8D 9C
10E 11C 12B 13B 14C 15E 16D 17C 18D
19C 20D 21C 22E 23A 24C 25B 26E 27A
28A 29B 30A
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Final Examination
November 18, 1994
17. All of the following are true for both DNA polymerase and RNA
polymerase EXCEPT which one?
A. Both require a template.
B. Both reactions produce pyrophosphate as a product.
C. Both add 5' nucleotides to 3' hydroxyl groups.
D. Both utilize 5'-nucleoside triphosphates as substrates.
E. Both require a primer.
18. What will be the effect of a single base pair DELETION in the
middle of a DNA sequence coding for a certain protein?
A. A protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center.
B. The gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced.
C. The amino half of the protein will have a normal
sequence.
D. The carboxyl half of the protein will have a normal
sequence.
E. DNA polymerase will repair the base pair substitution.
19. All of the carbon and nitrogen atoms of the pyrimidine ring
are 107
supplied by which of the groups of compounds listed below?
A. glutamate, glycine
B. glycine, aspartate
C. glutamine, N-10 formyl tetrahydrofolate
D. carbamoyl phosphate, ammonia
E. carbamoyl phosphate, aspartate
29. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and
rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis from acetyl- CoA?
A. thiolase
B. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA reductase
C. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA lyase
D. citrate lyase
E. acetyl CoA carboxylase
33. The formation of biologically active amines from amino acids 109
requires participation of the coenzyme:
A. biotin
B. thiamine
C. pyridoxal phosphate
D. NAD+
E. NADP+
40. HMGCoA can act as a precursor for all of the following 110
EXCEPT:
A. bile acids.
B. adrenal cortical hormones.
C. Vitamin D.
D. lecithin.
E. estrogen.
41. What change from normal is likely to result from the ingestion
of
ethanol?
A. increased reduction of pyruvate
B. increased conversion of beta-hydroxybutyrate to
acetoacetate
C. decreased ketogenesis due to lack of acetyl-CoA
D. increased production of oxaloacetate from malate
E. increased production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate from
glycerol phosphate
44. Obstruction of the common bile duct, with the resulting loss of
bile salts for emulsification would be expected to impair absorption of
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin K.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin C.
E. linolenic acid.
46. Which of the following mammalian enzymes will not react with
substrate to produce free ammonia or ammonium ion?
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Glutaminase
C. Serine dehydratase
D. Glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase
E. Asparaginase
54. Avidin, a protein found in egg whites, has a high affinity 112
for
biotin and is a potent inhibitor of biotin enzymes. Which of the
following would be blocked by the addition of avidin to a cell
homogenate?
A. glucose --> pyruvate
B. pyruvate --> glucose
C. oxaloacetate --> glucose
D. glucose --> ribose 5-phosphate
E. ribose 5-phosphate --> glucose
64. Southern blots are used to analyze DNA that has been
fractionated
based on difference in
A. length.
B. sequence.
C. GC content.
D. AT content.
E. density.
65. The phase in the mammalian cell cycle when the replicated
chromosomes are segregated into the daughter cells is
A. Go.
B. G1.
C. S.
D. G2.
E. M.
66. The complementary sequence for 5'-TCTAAG-3' is
A. 5'-AGATTC-3'
B. 5'-AGATAC-3'
C. 5'-AAATTT-3'
D. 5'-CATAGA-3'
E. 5'-CTTAGA-3'
67. In the gene for a protein containing 300 amino acids, which of
the
following mutations would be the LEAST LIKELY to result in a
non-functional protein?
A. an insertion of a single nucleotide in codon 23
B. a single base change in the first position of codon 12
C. a single base change in the third position of codon 12
D. a nonsense mutation in codon 37
E. a 10 base-pair deletion in the first exon
76. The biochemical basis for the use of methotrexate (an analog of
folic acid) as a chemotherapeutic agent in humans is that it
A. directly inhibits the function of dihydrofolate
reductase,
hence reduces THF levels and nucleotide synthesis in
tumor cells. 115
B. inhibits synthesis of folic acid, thus reducing RNA
and
DNA production.
C. directly inhibits the enzyme which catalyzes a reaction
involving THF and vitamin B12.
D. activates dihydrofolate reductase leading to
overproduction of THF and a sequestering of methyl
groups.
E. is a noncompetitive inhibitor of folic acid reduction.
86. Enzymes that require Cu++ for their activity include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. homocysteine methyl transferase
B. superoxide dismutase
C. lysyl oxidase
D. cytochrome oxidase
E. none of the above
-----------------------------------
NAME______________________________________
Match the signalling molecules on the right with their targets on the
left.
h. IP3
(inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate)
i. progesterone
j. diacylglycerol
Select the lettered item on the right that most closely corresponds
with
the statement on the left.
h. inverted repeat
i. enhancer
j. repressor
k. operator
118
Select the lettered item on the right that most closely corresponds
with
the statement on the left.
i. transferrin receptor
j. ferritin
k. heme oxygenase
Select the lettered item on the right that most closely corresponds
with
the statement on the left.
j. photolyase
Select the lettered item on the right that most closely corresponds
with
the statement on the left.
m. 3'-terminase
Match the disease on the left with the most closely associated defect
on
the right.
g. dopamine
h. urea cycle
i. DNA repair
j. HGPRT
k. glucose-6-phosphatase
l. phosphorylase
n. autoimmune
o. adenosine deaminase
p. collagen
ANSWERS 120
1C 2D 3E 4D 5A 6C 7D 8B 9A
10A 11A 12C 13D 14A 15D 16E 17E 18C
19E 20C 21B 22B 23C 24D 25A 26A 27C
28A 29B 30A 31C 32D 33C 34E 35D 36D
37D 38A 39A 40D 41A 42D 43D 44D 45E
46D 47E 48D 49E 50D 51D 52D 53A 54B
55C 56E 57C 58E 59A 60A 61C 62D 63A
64A 65E 66E 67C 68C 69D 70D 71C 72D
73B 74D 75C 76A 77C 78D 79E 80E 81D
82D 83C 84C 85D 86A 87C 88C 89A 90C
91C 92C 93e 94h 95g 96a 97j 98b 99d
100d 101c 102i 103h 104e 105g 106j 107i 108f
109a 110b 111j 112g 113e 114f 115c 116j 117i
118e 120f 121m 122h 123g 124a 125c
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Examination #1
August 20, 1996
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
121
D 6
E. 7
same reaction.
same reaction.
122
C. non-covalent association of protein with the lipid
bilayer.
bilayer.
123
A. inducing a conformational change in the enzyme.
enzyme.
124
7. At their isoelectric point proteins have:
A. no ionized groups.
groups.
enzyme present.
is equal to Vmax/2.
0.
126
A. Glycine
B. Aspartate
C. Histidine
D. Tryptophan
E. Proline
11. The pI of lysine is: (pK1 = 2.30, pK2 = 9.60, pK3 = 10.60)
A. 2.30
B. 5.95
C. 9.60
D. 10.10
E. 10.60
A. charge.
127
B. solubility.
C. size.
D. shape.
E. pI.
A. cyanogen bromide.
B. trypsin.
C. chymotrypsin.
D. phenylthioisocyanate.
E. ribonuclease.
128
B. the amino acid content of a protein.
C. C-terminal amino acid in a protein.
A. disulfide bonds.
C. salt bridges.
D. hydrogen bonds.
E. hydrophobic forces.
A. Induced fit
129
B. Destabilization
D. Covalent catalysis
increases.
decreases.
B. Water
D. ADP
E. ATP
correct EXCEPT:
transport.
hydrophobicity.
EXCEPT:
inhibition.
sigmoid shaped.
process.
membrane potential.
substrate.
membranes?
A. Asymmetric structure
surface
pointing inwards
pathways? 134
A. Carbohydrates becoming reduced to generate NADH for
ATP synthesis.
EXCEPT:
A. ribonuclease.
B. chymotrypsin.
C. elastase.
D. carboxypeptidase.
E. trypsin.
135
26. Assumptions used in deriving the Michaelis Menten equation
included all of the following EXCEPT:
C. E + S <--> ES ---> E + P
27. Which of the following does not describe a feature of the ATP
molecule?
A. A ribose.
B. An adenine.
D. An N-glycosidic linkage.
atom.
136
28. Which of the following statements about the structure of an
bonds.
ANSWERS
1B 2E 3D 4E 5A 6B 7D 8C 9E
10E 11D 12C 13E 14E 15D 16A 17A 18B
19C 20D 21E 22C 23D 24A 25A 26E 27E
28C
9/97BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Exam #2
September 9, 1996
137
Type A. Each of the following statements is followed by five
C. biosynthesis of creatine.
E. biosynthesis of cholesterol.
acetyl-CoA to beta-hydroxybutyrate?
A. beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA
B. acetyl carnitine
C. acetoacetic acid
138
D. NADH
E. acetyl-CoA
A. carbon dioxide.
B. glucose 6-phosphate.
D. fructose 6-phosphate.
E. ribose 5-phosphate.
139
C. the formation of a high energy bond between Pi and a
protein
EXCEPT
D. synthesis of ribose-5-phosphate.
gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
A. lactate.
140
B. beta-hydroxybutyrate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
A. transketolase.
B. transaldolase.
C. pyruvate carboxylase.
D. isocitrate dehydrogenase.
E. PEPCK.
E. formation of acetyl-carnitine.
142
10. All of the following statements about glucose metabolism are
true
EXCEPT
metabolism of glucose.
synthesis.
A. citrate synthase.
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
143
D. malate dehydrogenase.
E. pyruvate carboxylase.
A. hexokinase
B. pyruvate kinase
D. phosphofructokinase
from glucose?
144
C. glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
A. thiamine.
B. biotin.
C. niacin.
D. pantothenic acid.
E. riboflavin.
B. by passive diffusion.
145
C. after reaction with carnitine.
B. stimulation of gluconeogenesis
A. phosphoglucomutase.
B. hexokinase.
C. galactokinase.
D. fructokinase.
E. glycogen phosphorylase.
muscle.
FALSE?
148
21. Reducing equivalents generated during glycolysis in a normal
liver cell
A. phosphorylase.
B. phosphorylase kinase.
C. glycogen synthase.
D. phosphoglucomutase.
149
23. Insulin will cause
B. increased glycogenesis.
E. it is an intermediate in beta-oxidation.
150
25. Increased levels of ATP inhibit which pair of enzymes?
phosphates.
B. requires ATP.
phosphates.
151
27. In the electron transport scheme below, which electron carrier
is
missing?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Ferridoxin
D. Ubiquinone
E. NADPH
28. Which enzyme does NOT utilize a cofactor derived from a vitamin?
A. succinate dehydrogenase
B. pyruvate kinase
C. pyruvate carboxylase
D. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
152
E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
A. glycogen phosphorylase.
B. lactate dehydrogenase.
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D. glucose-6-phosphatase.
E. hexokinase.
A. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
B. glycerol-3-phosphate.
153
E. a high intramitochondrial concentration of Ca++.
ANSWERS
1A 2B 3E 4B 5A 6B 7A 8B 9A
10E 11C 12C 13B 14B 15E 16A 17B 18B
19B 20E 21C 22C 23E 24A 25C 26E 27D
28B 29D 30C
Exam #3
September 24, 1996
A. cysteine synthase.
B. cystathionine synthase.
C. cystathionase.
D. S-adenosylmethionine sulfatase.
E. S-adenosylhomocysteine sulfatase.
154
A. transaminase, glutaminase
B. transaminase
E. alanine oxidase
A. arginine.
B. cysteine.
C. glutamine.
D. alanine.
E. threonine.
E. xanthine oxidase.
A. urease.
B. uricase.
C. arginase.
E. glutaminase.
156
6. A reaction in mammalian tissues which requires the participation
of
E. cystathionine synthetase.
7. Enzymes that incorporate free ammonia into forms useful for the
deaminase.
transaminase.
8. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
B. is a ribonucleotide.
158
E. they block the synthesis of thiamine.
10. All of the following would be delivered through the blood
directly to
the liver following digestion and uptake into the small intestine
EXCEPT?
A. glucose
B. triglycerides
C. fructose
D. glutamine
E. glutamate
A. alanine
B. glycine
C. tryrosine
159
D. tryptophan
E. phenylalanine
B. phosphatidylinositol.
C. lysophosphatidic acid.
160
D. cholic acid.
E. sphingomyelin.
A. allopurinol.
B. lovastatin.
C. sulfa drugs.
D. 5-fluorouracil.
B. the chylomicra.
161
D. the high density lipoproteins (HDL).
E. the remnant particles.
and glutamine.
ribonucleotide.
C. 3-phosphoglyceric acid
D. pyruvic acid
E. oxaloacetate
following EXCEPT:
acids
163
A. lysine
B. valine
C. threonine
D. serine
E. tryptophan
A. chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. IDL
E. HDL
A. lipoprotein lipase
164
B. Apo C2
C. LCAT
D. LDL receptor
E. ACAT
reaction is:
A. pyruvate
B. aspartate
C. lysine
D. glutamate
E. glutamine
of steps) from:
E. free ammonia
C. transamination reactions.
D. kinase reactions.
26. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the committed and
A. thiolase
D. citrate lyase
A. methylglutaconyl-CoA hydratase.
B. leucine transaminase.
C. methylcrotonyl-Coa carboxylase.
E. enoyl-CoA hydratase.
A. methylmalonyl-CoA.
B. succinyl-CoA.
C. cholyl-CoA.
D. 5-phosphomevalonic acid.
E. HMG-CoA.
168
29. The major nitrogenous component in urine from an adult on an
A. amino acids.
B. creatinine.
C. urea.
D. uric acid.
E. ammonia.
EXCEPT:
activity.
169
ANSWERS
1B 2C 3B 4C 5E 6D 7D 8A 9C
10B 11D 12B 13A 14A 15B 16D 17C 18E
19D 20C 21D 22D 23B 24D 25C 26B 27D
28E 29C 30A
1. All of the following are true for DNA polymerase and RNA
170
2. ATP is directly required in protein biosynthesis for
A. 20.
B. 27.
C. 61.
D. 64.
E. 71.
mRNA?
A. 30.
B. 50.
C. 40.
D. 10.
E. 20.
which one?
precursors.
space.
B. inhibition of EF-2.
A. promoter
B. operator
173
C. structural genes
D. regulator genes
E. enhancer
point.
B. protein synthesis.
E. tRNA synthesis
13. The mRNA coding for the beta polypeptide chain of hemoglobin
polypeptide chain.
174
B. The entire polyribosome can bind only six tRNAs at
once.
C. The 60S subunit of one ribosome and the 40S subunit of
the ribosome.
factors.
E. is blocked by allopurinol.
175
16. In a human cell (with 46 chromosomes), which of the following
A. rRNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. DNA
E. hnRNA
17. The type of nucleic acid that usually contains small quantities
inosine, is
A. messenger RNA.
B. ribosomal RNA.
C. nucleolar RNA.
D. transfer RNA.
E. mitochondrial RNA.
order structures.
176
19. The rate of transcription of a gene in E. coli would not be
directly affected by
protein.
D. actinomycin D.
polymerase.
glucose is present.
subunit.
degradation.
an hour.
degradation.
rate of degradation.
reticulum.
178
24. The following table shows data obtained by Southern
hybridization
A1 1,2,3,5,6,7,8,11,17 Yes
A2 1,3,5,8,11 No
A3 2,3,6,17 No
A4 7,8,11,17 Yes
A. 17
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
E. Both B and C
26. Which of the following enzymes can be used for the construction
B. removal of methionine
C. protease cleavage
D. capping by 7-methylguanidine
180
29. What will be the effect of a single base deletion in the middle
abnormal.
sequence.
30. All of the following statements concerning DNA cloning are true
can be cloned.
eukaryotic cells.
ANSWERS
1E 2C 3C 4D 5C 6A 7C 8B 9A
10A 11B 12C 13C 14A 15D 16A 17D 18E
19E 20E 21C 22D 23C 24C 25E 26C 27D
28D 29E 30D
9/96Biochemistry 520
November 12, 1996
Exam #5
A. hexokinase.
B. glucose 6-phosphatase.
C. phosphoglucomutase.
182
D. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
E. pyruvate kinase.
A. bone formation.
E. steroid hydroxylation.
B. heparin I.V.
C. warfarin I.V.
D. protamine I.V.
A. G actin
B. tropomyosin
C. troponin C
D. alpha actinin
D. retinol to retinal.
E. beta-carotene to retinal.
A. alpha1 antitrypsin
B. alpha2 macroglobulin
C. tissue factor
E. antithrombin III
A. ALA-synthetase
B. lactic dehydrogenase
C. glutamic decarboxylase
D. histidine decarboxylase
E. aspartate aminotransferase
A. protoporphyrin IX.
B. coproporphyrinogen III.
E. bilirubin.
A. globin.
B. gallstones.
C. cholesterol.
D. heme.
E. uric acid.
mucosa by
C. ferritin complex.
185
12. Structure of collagen includes all of the following structural
features EXCEPT
A. left-handed helix.
B. triple helix.
catecholamines EXCEPT
form of DOPA.
to dopamine.
(COMT).
internalized.
A. Deoxyhemoglobin is oxygenated.
A. myosin
B. troponin
C. fibrin
D. actin
E. lectin
A. valine
B. aspartate
C. glycine
D. glutamine
E. alanine
hydrophobic products.
found is
A. alpha2beta2
B. beta4
C. beta4gamma2
D. alpha2gamma2
E. alpha2epsilon2
21. Leptin is
B. an appetite stimulant
D. a membrane receptor
C. activate phosphodiesterase
D. deactivate rhodopsin
prothrombin time (PT). A blood mixing study corrected the PTT time.
What
A. a circulating anticoagulant
B. lack of vitamin K
C. autoimmune problem
D. deficiency in methionine
E. lack of vitamin C
sarcoplasmic reticulum
A. a DNA virus
B. a misfolded protein
C. an RNA virus
D. a protein kinase
E. cytokines
diabetes is:
E. obesity
A. fibrinogen
B. thrombin
191
C. factor IX
D. factor X
E. factor VII
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
ANSWERS:
1D 2A 3B 4C 5B 6E 7B 8A 9D
10A 11B 12E 13D 14E 15E 16A 17D 18C
19B 20D 21C 22C 23E 24A,C 25D 26C 27B
28D 29A 30D
accumulate because
193
B. it is formed from fibrinogen by specific cleavage
by thrombin.
clot
following EXCEPT:
194
A. phosphorylation
B. hydrogen bonding
D. ionic interactions
E. enzymatic catalysis
phosphorylations EXCEPT
A. ATP synthase
B. phosphoglycerate kinase
C. pyruvate kinase
8. The major pathway by which mature red cells generate ATP is:
A. aerobic metabolism.
B. anaerobic glycolysis.
D. generation of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate.
muscle cells
10. The absorption of glucose from the intestinal lumen into mucosal
cells:
197
11. Which of the following enzymes are unique to gluconeogenesis
1. glucose 6-phosphatase
2. pyruvate kinase
3. PEP carboxykinase
4. aldolase
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
A. S-adenosyl methionine.
D. vitamin K.
E. biotin.
13. In the Cori cycle, the product made by liver cells and returned
to muscle is
A. acetyl CoA
B. glucose
C. palmitic acid
D. alanine
E. lactate
A. trypsinogen
199
B. chymotrypsinogen
C. carboxypeptidase
D. proelastase
E. prothrombin
1. an endonuclease
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA polymerase I
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
201
C. high density lipoproteins.
D. chylomicrons.
A. methylmalonyl-CoA
B. succinyl-CoA
C. cholyl-CoA
D. 5-phosphomevalonic acid
E. HMG-CoA
19. Which of the groups below contains two compounds that are parts
of
20. All of the following are true for both DNA polymerase and RNA
center
203
B. the gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced
sequence
A. the gene defect must be known and the normal gene must
be
therapy
mutation
effectors?
one
205
D. the code varies from species to species
amino acid
B. a metal ion.
A. hexokinase.
206
B. glucose 6-phosphatase.
C. lactate dehydrogenase.
D. pyruvate dehydrogenase.
E. glycogen phosphorylase.
27. All of the following compounds are carbon sources for the net
A. lactate.
B. beta-hydroxybutyrate.
C. alanine.
D. aspartate.
E. glycerol.
hemophilia A?
A. Factor II
207
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VIII
E. Factor XIII
of phosphofructokinase-1?
1. ATP
2. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
3. citrate
4. AMP
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
208
E. all of them
30. Which of the following statements about hemoglobin S is correct?
occur in
209
B. light chains only
32. A patient has chest pains that began 6 hours earlier. Which of
210
A. malonyl-CoA
B. oxaloacetate
C. lactate
D. acetylCoA
E. alanine
A. collagen synthesis
B. DNA replication
C. DNA repair
D. bilirubin conjugation
E. a tumor suppressor
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
amounts of
1. glucose.
3. acetoacetate.
212
4. free fatty acids.
A. 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. all of them
scurvy is
A. cholestyramine
B. allopurinol
C. methotrexate
D. 5-fluorouracil
E. puromycin
recognized by SRP?
A. insulin
B. lysosomal beta-hexosaminidase
C. beta-adrenergic receptor
D. trypsinogen
E. hexokinase
214
40. Which of the following amino acids is most likely to be found on
A. phenyalanine
B. methionine
C. leucine
D. valine
E. aspartate
receptors
subunit
D. is inactivated by a phosphodiesterase
215
E. is a second messenger
42. For a competitive enzyme inhibitor
D. the Km is unaffected
the membrane
216
E. lipids are asymmetrically distributed on both sides of
the membrane
esters
from VLDL
tissues
human is 217
A. intestinal epithelia
B. gall bladder
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
E. liver
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin E
C. biotin
D. pantothenic acid
E. thiamine
48. Which of the following is true for hemoglobin but not for
myoglobin
B. it is highly alpha-helical
C. it binds oxygen
219
49. The function of the enzyme acetylcholine esterase is to
cleft
A. probe
B. genomic library
C. cDNA library
D. vector
220
E. restriction digest
51. A restriction enzyme would not be required for
A. RFLP analysis
substrates
221
53. Which of the following steps in collagen biosynthesis takes
place
A. intermolecular crosslinking
B. hydroxylation of lysine
C. hydroxylation of proline
E. glycosylation
A. cis retinal
C. cGMP
D. rhodopsin
E. transducin
222
55. The antitumor reagent methotrexate functions by
A. adenylate cyclase
B. guanylate cyclase
C. IP3
D. protein kinase C
E. calmodulin
223
57. In malignant hyperthermia, administration of certain
reactions EXCEPT
A. vitamin B12
B. folic acid
C. biotin
D. thiamine
E. vitamin B6 (pyridoxamine)
A. trypsin
B. chymotrypsin
C. acetylcholine esterase
D. thrombin
225
E. lysozyme
deficiency
A. glycogen
B. glucose
C. galactose
226
D. fructose
E. maltose
the elimination of
A. ketone bodies
B. cortisol
C. progesterone
D. bile salts
E. acetyl CoA
A. carbon dioxide
B. ethanol
227
C. lactate
D. phosphoenol pyruvate
E. pyruvate
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
A. disulfide bonds
B. ionic bonds
C. hydrogen bond
228
D. hydrophobic forces
cellular
A. acetyl CoA
C. lactate
D. biotin
E. alanine
isolated from the infant in question #59, and its kinetic dependence on
229
69. Failure to digest dietary lipids leads to steatorrhea. All of
the
EXCEPT
A. bile pigments
B. bile salt
C. colipase
D. pancreatic lipase
E. pancreatic phospholipase
A. hemoglobin A
B. hemoglobin A1c
C. hemoglobin F
D. hemoglobin H
230
E. hemoglobin S
A. carboxypeptidase A
B. enterokinase (enteropeptidase)
C. furin
D. leucine aminopeptidase
E. pepsin
kinase activity?
B. fructose-6-phosphate 2-kinase/fructose-2,6-biphosphatase
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. histidine
D. valine
E. lysine
A. Bcl-2
B. NF1
232
C. p53
D. RB1
E. WT1
fluorouracil?
A. It is an alkylating agent.
D. It is a hormone antagonist.
76. Which one of the following binds calcium and then undergoes a
A. calsequestrin
B. tropomyosin
233
C. troponin I
D. troponin C
E. troponin T
are due to point mutations involving which one of the following amino
acids?
A. alanine
B. glycine
C. hydroxylysine
D. hydroxyproline
E. proline
A. cAMP
234
B. inositol triphosphate
C. tyrosine kinase
D. protein kinase C
A. AP exonuclease
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase
D. topoisomerase I
E. topoisomerase II
80. Each one of the following statements describes both human and
thymine.
cytosine.
A. cyclooxygenase
B. lipoxygenase
C. phospholipase A1
D. phospholipase A2
E. phospholipase C
protein kinase A
kinase
A. TATA box
B. CAAT box
C. GC box
D. enhancers
A. chain initiation
D. translocation
transducin?
A. It is a seven-transmembrane-segment protein
following proteins?
239
A. Ovaltine
B. Gi
C. Gi
D. Gs
E. EF-2
88. All of the following are considered essential amino acids in the
adult EXCEPT:
A. leucine
B. lysine
C. methionine
D. valine
E. asparagine
D. liver gluconeogenesis
94. Each of the following statements about heme and iron metabolism
is correct EXCEPT:
243
95. Which of the following amino acids is involved in the formation
of disulfide bridges?
A. methionine
B. hydroxyproline
C. tryptophan
D. tyrosine
E. cysteine
EXCEPT:
B. phosphorylase
C. fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
D. phosphorylase kinase
E. glycogen synthetase
244
97. Which of the following is a result of epinephrine signalling to
the muscle.
(a 4year-old boy) are alive and healthy, and child III (a girl) died of
normal CFTR gene and an 84-base-pair product from a 508 mutant gene.
The
of DNA from the parents, their children, the two fetuses, an unaffected
these results?
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
A. sphingomyelin
B. gangliosides
C. triacylglycerols
D. phosphatidylcholine
E. prostaglandins
should have:
D. Apoprotein E gene
EXCEPT:
249
C. increased gluconeogenesis from lactate
EXCEPT:
gluconeogenesis
blood glucose
glycogenolysis
A. 6.1
B. 7.1
C. 5.1
D. 7.4
A. Bcl-2
B. FIRE
C. ICE
D. WIND
E. Bax
251
108. Patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome have a tendency towards
A. xanthine oxidase
252
D. defective glutathione peroxidase
E. all of the above
disease)
3. glucokinase mutation
A. 1,2, and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
253
111. A 25 year old male insulin-dependent diabetic presents in the
emergency room of the hospital after not taking his shots faithfully.
B. blood pH = 7.1
beta-hydroxybutyrate
A. cytosol
B. lysosome
C. mitochondrion
D. nucleus
E. peroxisome
F. plasma membrane
254
G. rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
mannose-6-phosphate
------------------------------------------------------------
B. Bleeding disorders
C. Kwashiorkor
255
D. Marasmus
E. Night blindness
F. Pellagra
G. Pernicious anemia
H. Rickets
I. Scurvy
ANSWERS
1-10: C,D,A,C,D,A,D,B,C,D
41-50: B,B,C,C,E,C,B,D,C,C
51-60: D,C,A,D,E,B,B,D,D,E
61-70: C,D,D,C,D,C,B,B,A,B
71-80: B,D,B,D,E,D,B,E,C,A
81-90: A,E,E,C,E,B,D,E,E,A
91-100: C,E,B,D,E,E,D,A,B,D
101-110 D,D,B,C,D,B,C,D,E,E
111-121 E,G,D,C,B,A,G,D,E,A,F
BIOCHEMISTRY 520/720
Examination #1
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Exam #1 - August 19, 1997
1997: Exam 2
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Examination #2 - September 5, 1997
10. The Cori cycle involves the metabolism of lactic acid primarily
in
A. the liver.
B. skeletal muscle.
C. both A and B.
D. neither A nor B.
19. All of the following statements about fatty acids are true
EXCEPT:
A. Linolenic acid must be obtained from the diet.
B. Cis-desaturation of fatty acids requires O2.
C. The fatty acid synthase contains seven different
polypeptides.
D. Elongation of fatty acids past 16 carbons can occur in
the
endoplasmic reticulum.
E. The acyl carrier protein contains a prosthetic group
derived from pantothenic acid.
22. The carnitine esters of fatty acids carry fatty acyl groups
A. in the plasma.
B. across the plasma membrane.
C. during fatty acid biosynthesis.
D. into the mitochondrial matrix.
E. out of the mitochondrial matrix for biosynthesis of
triacylglycerols.
1997: Exam 3
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Examination #3 - September 22, 1997
9. The plasma and urine of patients with maple syrup urine disease
contain elevated levels of each of the following amino acids
EXCEPT
A. valine
B. leucine
C. lysine
D. isoleucine
A. 1,2, and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. all 4 are correct
30. The enzyme that oxidatively releases NH3 from an amino acid,
generating NADH in the process, is called
A. serine dehydratase
B. aspartate aminotransferase
C. glutamic dehydrogenase
D. glutaminase
E. glutamine synthetase
ANSWERS:
1C 2D 3D 4B 5C 6C 7C 8A 9C
10C 11C 12A 13C 14C 15E 16A 17D 18D
19B 20D 21D 22C 23D 24E 25A 26B 27B
28B 29E 30C
1997: Exam 4
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
Exam #4 - October 7, 1997
10. The mRNA coding for the beta polypeptide chain of hemoglobin
(beta
mRNA) can accommodate six ribosomes. Which of the following is
true for
this polyribosome complex?
A. All six ribosomes are cooperating to form one beta
polypeptide chain.
B. The entire polyribosome can bind only six tRNAs.
C. The 60s subunit of one ribosome and the 40s subunit of
another may later be bound to each other on another
mRNA.
D. The ribosome nearest the 5' end of the beta mRNA is
carrying a larger portion of a beta polypeptide chain
than is
the ribosome nearest the 3' end.
17. The degree of homology between DNA from two organisms can most
accurately be determined by
A. base composition.
B. comparing melting curves.
C. density measurements.
D. hybridization.
30. What wll be the effect of a single base pair deletion at the 3'
splice sequence of intron #1 coding for a certain protein?
A. a protein with a single amino acid substitution in its
center
B. the gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be
produced
C. a mutant protein larger than the wild type
D. a mutant protein smaller than the wild type
E. DNA polymerase will repair the damage
ANSWERS:
1C 2C 3C 4C 5E 6C 7C 8B 9B
10C 11A 12C 13D 14D 15D 16D 17D 18C
19B 20D 21C 22A 23C 24B 25C 26D 27C
28A 29C 30D
1997: Exam 5
2. The RDA levels for which of the following vitamins was recently
increased in order to address deficiencies in pregnant women
which
might lead to fetal neural tube defects?
A. vitamin B12
B. folate
C. riboflavin
D. niacin
E. tocopherol
3. The absence of meat and dairy in the vegan diet helps to lower
fat
and cholesterol intake making it a quite healthy lifestyle. 276
However,
vegans should be careful to monitor their intake of which of the
following vitamins which is absent in fruits and vegetables?
A. beta-carotene
B. folate
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin C
E. vitamin K
18. Many human cancers involve mutant P53 genes. Which of the
following is incorrect about P53?
A. It normally inhibits a cell in G1.
B. The mutation results in a gain of function.
C. It is referred to as a tumor suppressor gene.
D. The gene product normally acts as a transcription
factor.
E. It activates P21 which in turn inhibits cyclic/cdk
complexes.
30. All of the following are true about nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. NO is synthesized from arginine by Nitric Oxide
Synthetase.
B. Nitric Oxide Synthetase is activated by cyclic GMP.
C. NO directly activates guanyl cyclase by binding to a
heme
protein.
D. NO causes smooth muscle relaxation.
E. NO is released from nitroglycerin.
BIOCHEMISTRY 520
EXAM 1
A. Phosphatidyl cholin
B. Phosphatidyl serine
C. Phosphatidic acid
D. Sphingomyelin
E. Ganglioside
B. zero.
C. greater than 1.
A. LDH-1
B. CK-MM
C. CK-MB
E. Lipase.
A. Phosphatidyl Choline
B. Amylase
C. Creatine Kinase
D. Cholesterol
E. Gangliosides
D. An epitope
EXCEPT:
insulin
A. pH 4
B. pH 6
C. pH 7
D. pH 9
E. pH 10
283
8. The fluid mosaic model of a membrane includes all of the
following
EXCEPT:
substrate concentrations.
10. A particular amino group has a pKa of 7.5. What is the ratio of
the concentrations of charged to
A. 100:1 284
B. 10:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:10
E. 1:10
protein conformation.
285
13. The Km for an enzyme is 3 x 10-5 M and the Vmax is 8000 moles of
A. 16,000
B. 1,600
C. 160
D. 4,000
E. 400
concentration.
the enzyme.
17. The cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and digitalis would cause
which of the following to occcur?
B. decreased extracellular K+
A. alpha-amylase
B. alkaline phosphatase
C. lactic dehydrogenase
D. creatine phosphokinase
287
E. troponin I
A. lysozyme
B. trypsin
C. chymotrypsin
the membrane
kinetic parameters
A. asn
B. glu
C. ile
D. met
E. ser
25. Why would Bence Jones proteins appear in the urine of a patient
with a myeloma?
A. allosteric effectors
B. hydrogen bonds
C. non-polar interactions
D. electrostatic bonds
ANSWERS TO PART I
1A 2D 3C 4A 5D 6E 7E 8C 9B
10B 11D 12C 13D 14C 15D 16D 17A 18A
19A 20D 21C 22B 23D 24B 25A 26E 27A
28B 29D 30E
EXAM 2
16. The most direct source of acetyl CoA for synthesis of fatty
acids
is:
A. Citrate (cytosol)
B. Free fatty acids (cytosol)
C. Free fatty acids (mitochondria)
D. Mitochondrial acetyl CoA
E. Fatty acyl CoA (cytosol)
EXAM 3
October 2, 1998
15. All of the following are true about nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. NO is synthesized from arginine by Nitric Oxide
Synthetase.
B. Nitric Oxide Synthetase is activated by cyclic GMP.
C. NO directly activates guanyl cyclase by binding to a
heme protein.
D. NO causes smooth muscle relaxation.
E. NO is released from nitroglycerin..
304