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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
and direction b. ANS: bandwidth 7. its amplitude. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. In ____________________. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. ANS: greater larger wider 8. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. The more information per second you send. its amplitude c. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. or parts.25. In ____________________. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. ANS: TDM 10. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. frequency. ANS: 1901 3. its amplitude and frequency d. ANS: zero 6. . ANS: FDM 9. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. The part. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. ANS: 1863 2. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. ANS: channel 5. its amplitude. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. frequency. ANS: base 4.
A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. For satellite communications. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. ANS: solar 19. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem.ANS: very high 11. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. Transmitter. . ANS: Source. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. ANS: 300 million 15. In free space. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: Fourier 17. Receiver. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: wavelength 14. Channel. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. Destination 2. Mathematically. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 13. ANS: 30 12.
Find the total NF for the pair. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. Shot. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. 5. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. NF = 100 8. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. Find its noise figure. . What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. ANS: 50 µV 6. Calculate the total noise voltage. Likewise. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise.ANS: Thermal. Partition. Find NF. both across the same 100-ohm load. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode.5 9. 1/f. ANS: 5. ANS: 1. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. the output of which is a noise current. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Likewise. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. transit-time 3. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. both in dB and as a ratio. ANS: 20 dB.4 10. 4.
Miller time ANS: B 2. base-to-collector capacitance c. charge time b. a simple form of bandpass filter b. using a common-emitter amplifier b. capacitance. In a BJT. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. reactance only . cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. A resonant circuit is: a. reduce the Miller effect c. have no effect on Q c. The "Miller Effect" can: a. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. none of the above c. inductance of collector lead b. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. and resistance d. base time c. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. "multiply" the Q d. both a and b d. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. base-to-emitter capacitance d. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. it cannot be avoided c. inductance. all of the above c. transit time d. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. A real capacitor actually contains: a. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. the Miller Effect is due to: a. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. capacitance and resistance only b. neutralize amplifiers d. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b.
In RF amplifiers. none of the above ANS: C 13. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. loop gain equal to unity b. a signal containing harmonics d. direct coupling b. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. decoupling it d. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. an RC time constant d. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a piezoelectric crystal . a nonlinear circuit b. but at just one frequency d. impedance matching is usually done with: a. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. only built with FETs c. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. it requires: a. a linear amplifier c. RC coupling c. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. the Hartley criteria d. a tapped inductor b. the Bode criteria b. an RC time constant d. the loop-gain criteria c. both a and b. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. The Clapp oscillator is: a. transformer coupling d. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. a piezoelectric crystal c. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a.9. a tapped inductor b.
all of the above 18. used for a precise frequency b. c. does not contain the input frequencies d. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. "VFO" stands for: a. none of the above ANS: A 20. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. the output: a. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . ANS: short 2. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. all of the above ANS: D 19. contains the input frequencies c. In a balanced mixer. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. the output: a. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. are fed to a mixer. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b.17. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. Generally. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. At UHF frequencies and above. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. a diode ANS: D c. used in tuner circuits d. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. If two signals. A varactor is: a. a fixed-frequency RF generator d.
When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: neutralization 12. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. ANS: shielding 5. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: capacitive 13. it is called a ____________________. Electrically. ANS: components 6. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: Q 9. ANS: bypass 8. In a class C RF amplifier. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. parallel . collector current). A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. ANS: tuned circuit 11. ANS: series. ANS: 10 10.ANS: distributed 3. ANS: decoupling 7. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit.g. In high-frequency RF circuits. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: ground-plane 4.
V1 and V2. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius.05% 7. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. Two sinusoidal signals. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. 5. To produce sum and difference frequencies. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0.1 4. ANS: linear 15. At some bias point. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz.4 µH 2. 0.14. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. V2 is a 5MHz signal. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider.
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.
v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. 1. splatter ANS: C 6. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. m = Va / Vc d. Angle Modulation d. then the modulation index. At 100% modulation. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. twice the carrier power d. none of the above c. it will produce the frequencies: a. m = Emax / Emin d. m. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). is: a. m. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. Overmodulation causes: a. the total sideband power is: a. the amplitude signal d. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. Antenna Modulation . distortion b. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. none of the above ANS: A 8. none of the above c. both a and b d. Audio Modulation b.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. is: a. The modulation index.414 × carrier power c. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power b. m = ωa / ωc c. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. the baseband signal b. AM stands for: a. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b.
1000 watts c. none of the above c. SSB AM: a. 5 kHz c. the time-domain signal b. none of the above . 0 watts ANS: D 17. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. 500 watts d. none of the above ANS: B 10. PEP stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 14. The modulation index can be derived from: a. 10 kHz d. 1. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. is more efficient b. 250 watts b. all of the above ANS: D 11. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. Peak Envelope Power b. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. all of the above ANS: C 13. single-carrier b. requires less bandwidth d. both a and b d.ANS: C 9. you would expect: a. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. sideband-carrier d. Peak Envelope Product d. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. requires too much power d. the received RF signal to increase d. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. none of the above c. AM is susceptible to noise c. As compared to plain AM. requires too much bandwidth c.005 MHz b. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a.
commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. be set to USB mode c. the power in the LSB is ____________________. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. digital data b. video d. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. all of the above ANS: C 18. ANS: the same . In AM. ANS: simple 2. reinsert the carrier d. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. both a and b b. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. the information in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: inefficient 3. ANS: two 5. the receiver must: a. audio c. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. ANS: the same 6. all of the above ANS: D 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. ANS: envelope 4. Compared to the USB. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________.b. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. Compared to the USB. The total modulation index is: a. commercial AM stations use low power c. m1 + m2 c.
If the carrier power is 1000 watts. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0.3. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. With a 1-MHz carrier. ANS: less 8.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: one 10. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. In AM. ANS: remains constant 9. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2.6 . if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz.4. ANS: 1010 kHz 12.707 4. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. 0.7. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. In AM. what is the power in the USB at 70. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones.5. as the modulation index increases. and 0. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. the carrier power _________________________. In AM. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation.
If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts.5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts .
the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Near Band FM d. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. fractals ANS: B 5. Taylor series b. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. Bessel functions d. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. Narrowband FM c. it is called: a. none of the above .Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. it is band-limited at the receiver d. NBFM stands for: a. the noise effect b. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. Mathematically. The FM modulation index: a. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. the limit effect ANS: B c. the capture effect c. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. Carson's Rule d. National Broadcast FM b. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. the threshold effect d. Armstrong's Rule b.
the threshold effect d. ANS: angle 2. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. all of the above c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. An SCA signal: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. none of the above ANS: A 9. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the "two-station" effect b. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. the time delay between the L and R channels d. ANS: data c. can use amplitude modulation b. is monaural d. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the capture effect c.8. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. is not compatible with mono FM . FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. FM stereo: a.
Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. In FM. ANS: stay constant 7. their power ____________________. As the FM modulation index increases. ANS: decreases 14. ANS: increases 13. In FM.3. ANS: better 4. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. ANS: amplitude 8. ANS: C 6. ANS: any number 12. ANS: wider greater 5. the modulation index ____________________. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. as the modulating frequency decreases. Mathematically. Compared to AM. Mathematically. ANS: frequency 9. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: infinite 10. as the frequency deviation decreases. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. the modulation index ____________________. . Compared to AM. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: decreases 11. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. In FM. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________.
If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. ANS: threshold 19.4. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. For certain values of mf. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. 1-kHz audio signal? . what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. ANS: capture 20. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. such as 2. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Carson's 17. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment.ANS: increases 15. ANS: Bessel 18. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1.
At a modulation index of 2.4. At a modulation index of 2. then δ is 11 kHz. 5. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. . Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.5.2 watt) 8. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. For example.ANS: 2 5.1. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7.5. Using Carson's rule. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48.4 watts 6. At a modulation index of 2. Record the audio frequency. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. Using a spectrum analyzer. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10.
spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. With high-level AM: a. Baseband compression produces: a. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. may require water cooling b. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. all of the above c. Accurate Level Control d. maximize transmitted power d. VFO b. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. a smaller number of signals d. keep the modulation close to 100% b. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Amplitude Level Control b. all of the above c. none of the above ANS: B 4. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. ALC is used to: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. In an AM transmitter. expansion d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. With high-level AM: a. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. ALC stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 3. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. heats the transmitter d. minimum RF power is required d. agility c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. is a measure of efficiency c. none of the above .
the resistor must be: a. all of the above ANS: B 10. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. 75 ohms resistive d. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. the resistor is called: a. noninductive d. 1% tolerance or better b. the carrier ANS: A 12. a dummy load d. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. has variable amplitude d. the power level of the carrier b. is complex c. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. In high-level AM. none of the above ANS: C 13. none of the above . wire-wound c. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. 300 ohms resistive b. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. T network d. a heavy load c. the driver stage b. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. all of the above ANS: B 17. pi network c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. "high-level" refers to: a. very efficient c. A Class D amplifier is: a. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. a test load ANS: B 16. the modulating amplifier c. has variable frequency b. 50 ohms resistive c. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c.ANS: C 9. both a and b b. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. a temporary load b. In high-level AM. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. the RF amplifier d.
Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. a mechanical filter c. all of the above c. Audio Frequency Control . Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. none of the above ANS: C 21. To generate a SSB signal: a. With mixing: a. AFC stands for: a. integrates the modulating signal c. essentially balanced modulators b. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. none of the above ANS: A 22. both a and b b. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. start with full-carrier AM b. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. the carrier frequency can be raised b. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. a crystal filter d. a mixer ANS: A d. none of the above ANS: B 23. a balanced modulator b. An indirect FM modulator: a. A direct FM modulator: a. both a and b d. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. both a and b d. Automatic Frequency Control d. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. Frequency multipliers are: a. all of the above c. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. a frequency multiplier d. essentially mixers d.b. The carrier is suppressed in: a. none of the above 20. start with a quadrature signal d. none of the above c. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25.
_________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: linear 11. ANS: efficiently 10. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: agility 5. . ANS: expansion 8. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: compression 9. ANS: PEP 6. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. ANS: compression 7. In Canada.d. ALC is a form of ____________________. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. In the USA. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. a ____________________ stage is used. ANS: carrier 2. ANS: FCC 3. ANS: Industry Canada 4. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator.
ANS: harmonic 16. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. To allow a high modulation percentage. ANS: mixing 22. ANS: receiver 18. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. To generate a SSB signal. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: 50 14. ANS: higher 13. ANS: T 15. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: D 21. ANS: DSBSC . Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: duration 20. ANS: mismatch 17. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: driver 19.ANS: buffer 12.
The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz .23. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2.8% 3. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: reactance 25. Assuming high-level modulation. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator.001%. To pass the USB. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. ANS: phase 24. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.005 MHz 6. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1.
7. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. ANS: First. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. .
The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. AGC stands for: a. all of the above c. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. small adjustable capacitors . small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. Seeley d. image frequency c. Audio Gain Control b. Armstrong b. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the mixer d. Active Gain Control d. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. small adjustable inductors d. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. none of the above ANS: C 5.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Hertz ANS: C 3. the spurious response and the tracking d. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. Active Gain Conversion c. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. "IF" stands for: a. Foster c. indeterminate frequency d. intermediate frequency b. the tuner b. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. is above the RF frequency c. two types of adjusting tools b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. Trimmers and padders are: a. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. "Skin effect" refers to: a.
all of the above c. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. is fixed. all of the above c. is below the RF frequency c. it increases selectivity d. selectivity measures: a. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. with two signals close in frequency. Basically.414 dB is ideal b. the mixer b.b. a value of 1. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. Phase distortion is important in: a. a value of 1. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. a value of 0. there is no ideal value . Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the detector ANS: D 15. typically at 455 kHz. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. the IF amplifiers d. color video receivers ANS: B c. none of the above ANS: A 11. none of the above c. When comparing values for shape factor: a. sensitivity measures: a. ANS: C 9. Basically.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. it increases sensitivity c. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. monochrome video receivers d. both values are basically equivalent d. voice communications systems b.0 is ideal d. When comparing values for shape factor: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b.
prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. enter the mixer. a PLL b. enter the mixer. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. none of the above ANS: C 20. the dynamic range of the receiver b. An FM detector is the: a. PLL b. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. a product detector c. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. ratio detector ANS: D 22. all of the above ANS: C 23. enter the mixer. all of the above c. a diode ANS: D c. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. ratio detector d.16. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. envelope detector ANS: B 21. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. An image must be rejected: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. A common SSB detector is: a. all of the above c. prior to detection d. PLL b. prior to mixing b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. quadrature detector d. A common AM detector is the: a. images cannot be rejected . noise generated in the receiver d. a BFO d. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. the AGC c.
AFC b. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. squelch d. ratio detection . Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c.24. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. AFC stands for: a. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. limiting ANS: B 30. Automatic Frequency Control d. to limit dynamic range d. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. LNA stands for: a. to limit noise response c. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. The function of AFC is: a. BFO stands for: a. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. envelope detection d. Low-Noise Audio d. AGC c. coherent detection ANS: B 27. a quadrature detector d. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. The function of a limiter is: a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. reinject the carrier c. you need to: a. carrier detection b. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. a PLL detector b. use double conversion d. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. Audio Frequency Compensator b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. all of the above ANS: C 28. maintain a constant IF frequency b. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Foster-Seeley detector c. to remove amplitude variations b.
Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. c. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. The main function of the AGC is to: a. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Software-Activated Wave . it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. ANS: superheterodyne 2. Tuned Receiver Function c. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Digital Signal Processor c. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Distorted Signal Packet d. Dynamic Signal Properties b. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d.c. The important property of a SAW is: a. all of the above ANS: C 36. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. none of the above c. none of the above ANS: B 33. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. DSP stands for: a. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. TRF stands for: a. it is a stable bandpass filter d. SINAD stands for: a. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. SAW stands for: a. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d.
The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: skin 5. In a superhet. ANS: lower 12.ANS: 1887 3. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: intermediate IF 9. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. the other changes with it. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: Sensitivity . ANS: track 4. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. ANS: autodyne 11. ANS: AGC 10. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: mixer 8. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: front end 7. In a superhet. ANS: 1918 6. In a receiver. In low-side injection. ANS: Selectivity 13.
14. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. ANS: coherent 21. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. . A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: noisy 26. While still commonly found. ANS: gate 25. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: detector 17. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. ANS: amplitude 24. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. ANS: image 16. ANS: product 19. ANS: obsolescent 23. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. Unlike the PLL detector. ANS: carrier 20. ANS: S 22. ANS: conversion 15. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.
ANS: S 34. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. ANS: adjustment 30. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ANS: limiting 35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. Compared to tuned circuits. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: over 28. ANS: IF 33. Typically. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. In a block converter.ANS: A 27. ANS: fixed constant 32. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: higher 31. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: stagger 29.
What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.06 7.20 kHz 2. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0.01 .5 MHz. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0.25 4. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. Assuming high-side injection.
I = ktB b. Natural Sampling does not use: a. Ten-Digital Manchester d. a regenerative repeater b. SR = 2fmax c. none of the above . The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. I = ktB b. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. a sample-and-hold circuit b. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. Morse code d. In digital transmission. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. an amplifier c. Baudot code ANS: C 2. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Time-Division Multiplexing b.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ASCII code b. SR = 2fmax c. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. a fixed sample rate d. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. I = ktB b. SR = 2fmax c. TDM stands for: a. The first digital code was the: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. an analog-to-digital converter c. Hartley's Law is: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. true binary numbers ANS: A c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. signal degradation can be removed using: a. all of the above ANS: C 3. SR = 2fmax c. Ten Dual-Manchester c. a filter d.
ANS: D 10. PCM d.9. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. PDM c. c. too few samples per second d. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. a sample alias b. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. The immediate result of sampling is: a. b. the A Law c. noise b. PDM c. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. all of the above . none of the above ANS: A 15. PAM ANS: B 12. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. but not both. PPS ANS: D 13. d. companding uses: a. They are two types of sampling error. You can have one or the other. the µ Law (mu law) c. PWM d. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. decreases as the sample rate increases b. the α Law (alpha law) d. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. Companding is used to: a. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. the Logarithmic Law b. PPM b. In North America. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. They are the same thing.
Codec stands for: a. all of the above c. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. Code-Compression d. the signal changes too rapidly c. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. is a biphase code b. the A Law ANS: B 18. Coder-Decoder b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. none of the above c. the signal does not change d. transmits fewer bits per sample b. Compared to PCM. provides strong timing information d. all of the above ANS: D 25. 4-bit numbers c. the Logarithmic Law b. delta modulation: a. companding uses: a. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. In delta modulation. 12-bit numbers b. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. only over shorter distances b. can suffer slope overload d. the bit rate is too high b. Manchester d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23.ANS: D 17. AMI c. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. Manchester coding: a. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. Compared to PCM. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. "granular noise" is produced when: a. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. the α Law (alpha law) d. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. In Europe. unipolar NRZ b. the µ Law (mu law) .
1 b. all of the above c. 8 kb/s . A typical T-1 line uses: c. 2 ANS: D c. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31.544 Mb/s b. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. carry signaling ANS: C 27. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 56 k d.544 MB/s c. 1. detect errors b. 12 ANS: B 34. 8 29. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 24 d. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. 6 b. A T-1 cable uses: a. NRZ coding d. Manchester coding b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 48 c. 1. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 8 k c. 56 kb/s b. detect errors b. 4 d. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 4 d. 56 kb/s d. 64 k b. 2 ANS: A 26. 8 c. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 1 b. pulse-width coding c. In DS-1. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 1. 64 kb/s d.544 × 106 ANS: A 30.a. all of the above c.
on-hook/off-hook condition b. ANS: modulated 3. A vocoder implements compression by: a.a. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. twisted-pair wire b. In analog channels. ANS: binary . much better c. To send it over an analog channel. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. ANS: improved better 2. ANS: digitized 4. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. ringing d. To send it over a digital channel. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. somewhat better d. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. busy signal ANS: D c. microwave c. fiber-optic cable d. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. about the same b. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. Compared to standard PCM systems. an analog signal must first be ____________________. all of the above 36.
ANS: Natural 15.6. and bandwidth. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: Nyquist 16. ANS: regenerative 7. information capacity. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ANS: Time 10. Ignoring noise. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: Foldover . ANS: Shannon 14. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. ANS: error noise 9. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. ANS: Hartley's 12. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: limited 11. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ANS: correct 8.
ANS: A 24. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: 1 one 27. ANS: µ mu 23.17. In North America. In Europe. ANS: Quantizing 21. ANS: Pulse-code 20. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: 12 26. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: amplitude 19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: Companding 22. ANS: higher . ANS: Aliasing 18. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: codec 25. In a PCM system.
ANS: zeros 35. In delta modulation. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: transition 36. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: DC 33. ANS: 8000 40. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: slope 30. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: 24 38. ANS: Granular 29. ANS: polarity 34. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. . ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. In DS-1. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: step 31. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. ANS: half 32. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: timing 37.28. In AMI. ANS: framing 39.
000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . ANS: 2000 hertz 3.ANS: 1.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. From a group of twelve frames.544 × 106 41. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. in dB. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. ANS: superframe 42. ANS: 5 seconds 2. ANS: sixth 43. What is the approximate dynamic range.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.
833 volt . what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.388 volt? ANS: 0. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.ANS: 64 kbps 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.
trunk lines ANS: B 7. DTMF stands for: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. Central offices are connected by: a. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. Primary Operational Test System d. A LATA is a: a. Local Area Telephone Access d. Private Office Telephone System b. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . a local calling area b. Primary Service Telephone Network d.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. local loops b. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area b. a toll station ANS: C 8. Local loops terminate at: a. a tandem office b. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. both a and b d. Plain Old Telephone Service c. an interexchange office c. PSTN stands for: a. POTS stands for: a. a way of accessing a central office c. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Local Area Transport Access c. none of the above c. a central office d. a way of accessing a tandem office d. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. occurs only on long-distance cables d. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Call blocking: a. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c.
crossbar control d. coaxial cable d. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. only when it is ringing c. 20 hertz AC d. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. fiber-optic c. Post Office Protocol b. 48 volts DC c. step-by-step switching control c. ESS ANS: C 16. none of the above . The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. Loading coils were used to: a. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. 200 µA to 800 µA d. POP stands for: a. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. common control b. 90 volts.ANS: D 9. 2 mA to 8 mA b. In telephony. 90 volts DC b. DC current flows through a telephone: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. when it is on hook b. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. FITL stands for: a. 20 µA to 80 µA c. 48 volts. reduce crosstalk d. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. twisted-pair copper wire b. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. Power-On Protocol d. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. Framing In The Loop d.
48 volts DC b. DSBSC d. PABX stands for: a. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. supergroups b. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. all of the above ANS: C 19. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. mastergroups ANS: D 24. 60 ANS: B 23. PDM b. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. prevent "singing" d. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. jumbogroups d. 90 volts DC d. SSB c. 1 mW b. 1 pW d. eliminate reflections c. In telephone system FDM. 12 d. VNL stands for: a. all of the above c. voice noise level . 24 b. 0 dBr c. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 6 c. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 20 hertz AC 18. 48 volts. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. voltage net loss b. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. 90 volts.a. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. prevent oscillation d. volume net loss ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. PCM ANS: A 25. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. via net loss d. allow signals to be multiplexed b.
All-Digital Subscriber Line b. ISDN stands for: a. Access to Data Services Line . bits are "robbed" in order to: a. A ____________________ is a local calling area. ANS: LATA 2.26. check for errors c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. it took to long to develop b. much more expensive b. c. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. cancel echoes d. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. frame alignment c. SLIC stands for: a. about the same speed d. much faster c. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. Integrated Services Digital Network b. In DS-1. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Compared to ISDN. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. Information Systems Digital Network 30. justification d. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. compensation b. Integrated Services Data Network d. rectification ANS: C 29. provide synchronization b. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. carry signaling ANS: B 28. it is too slow c. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a.
ANS: digital 7. ANS: Loading 10. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. . the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. ANS: twisted-pair 8. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: seized 14. With 7-digit phone numbers. ANS: ring 11. the green wire is called ____________________. Of the red and green 'phone wires. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ANS: tip 12. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. the red wire is called ____________________. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: blocking 6. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. As compared to a hierarchical network.ANS: trunk 3. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: green 13. ANS: tandem 4. ANS: flat 9. ANS: ten 5.
ANS: hybrid 16. In FDM telephony. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: DTMF 19. ANS: large 18. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: lines 17. the modulation is usually ____________________. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. In a crosspoint switch. ANS: repeaters 21. Because of "bit robbing". In FDM telephony.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ANS: guard 25. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. ANS: suppressor 22. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. ANS: C-message 23. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: conditioned 20. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. amplifiers are called ____________________. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. In the telephone system. ANS: 56 . An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.
For a certain telephone. If the loop current is 40 mA. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. In DS-1C. ANS: asymmetrical 35. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: packet 31. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. In ADSL. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: B 33. ANS: superframe 27. ANS: stuff 28.26. ANS: TE1 34. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. In ISDN. ANS: common-channel 30. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: in-channel 29. In ISDN. ANS: D 32. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . For a certain telephone. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. ANS: 1 dB 5. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. If the loop current is 40 mA.
all of the above c. escape characters ANS: C 8. both a and b c. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. over short distances only c. all of the above ANS: B 5. Emile Baudot . the Morkum Company b. Line Forward c. numerical data b. alphanumeric characters b. binary data d. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. Character codes include: a. graphic control characters d. In practical terms. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. FIGS data c. none of the above c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. LF stands for: a. over any distance b. FF. ASCII stands for: a. American Standard Character-set 2 b. character sets ANS: C 4. usually over long distances d. control characters d. parallel data transmission is sent: a. character codes b. BS. nonstandard character codes b. Data codes are also called: a. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. Western Union d.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Line Feed c. and CR are examples of: a. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. they do not have any other name d. American Standard Code 2 d. data link control characters ANS: D 6.
In asynchronous transmission. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. In synchronous transmission. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. the frames are: a. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. all of the above ANS: A 14. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. Link Forward 9. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. the channel must be noise-free . equal to zero c. the data bits d. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. not synchronized at all. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. In synchronous transmission. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. Unaltered Received Text d. equal to one bit-time d. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. 128 bytes long d.b. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. much longer than asynchronous frames c. Link Feed ANS: A d. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the transmitter and receiver are: a. the CRC bits b. UART stands for: a. the clock bits c. not a set length ANS: D 12. In asynchronous transmission. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a.
HDLC: a. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. correct bit errors b. all of the above c. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. requires the use of DLE d. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. VRC is another name for: a. automatic receiver queue d. none of the above c. BISYNC: a. ARQ c. Forward Error Correction d. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. Control Receiver Code b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. put data into a temporary buffer d. ARQ ANS: D 23. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. is identical to SDLC d. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. LRC d. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. ARQ is used to: a. automatic request for queue c. CRC stands for: a. is an IBM product b. automatic request for resynchronization b. is an IBM product b. Huffman codes: a. Cycle Repeat Character c. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. FEC b. all of the above . FEC stands for: a. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. parity c. FEC d.ANS: A 16. "bit-stuffing" b. False Error Condition c. Fixed Error Control b.
d. all of the above c. all of the above c. ANS: ASCII 5. an ISO standard d. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. ANS: short 2. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. avoids the "password problem" d. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. ANS: FF c. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. none of the above . Synchronous Data Line Character c. Synchronous Data Link Control b. HDLC is: a. encrypt data b. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. allows the use of digital signatures b. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Run-length encoding is used to: a. SDLC stands for: a. correct data d. a bit-oriented protocol b. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. compress data ANS: B 26. Public-key encryption: a. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. ANS: character 4. ANS: Baudot 3.
each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: flag 16. ANS: start 7. ANS: BISYNC 15. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. In HDLC. ANS: buffers 11. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit.6. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: data 14. ANS: UART 10. the line will be at the ____________________ level. ANS: 01111110 17. When receiving digital data. ANS: mark binary 1 9. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. . ANS: stop 8. At the end of an asynchronous frame. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. ANS: transitions 13. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: efficient 12. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data.
ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: burst 25. ANS: long 29. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. . ANS: decrypted 30. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: forward 22. Because it is ____________________-intensive. ANS: escape 19. If the key is ____________________ enough.ANS: block 18. ANS: ARQ 23. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. ANS: compression 26. ANS: password 28. DLE stands for data link ____________________. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. ANS: cipher 27. public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: Burst 21. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: even 24. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error.
If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits).ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. ANS: 66. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. ANS: 97. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data.7% 6. and two stop bits (it could happen). How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.0% . Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data.
Client-Server Multi-Access b. a very large CSMA/CD network d. In a circuit-switched network: a. all of the above ANS: B 7. Collision Detection d. are based on Ethernet b. Most LANs: a.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. CSMA stands for: a. Collision Delay c. communication is half-duplex only b. not really a network at all c. each channel carries only one data stream c. Carrier Detection b. all of the above c. hub b. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. a network of networks b. use UTP cable d. token-passing rings are: a. in networks requiring central monitoring c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. token ANS: C 8. Carrier Server Master Application d. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. none of the above ANS: B 6. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. circuit c. Each computer on a network is called a: a. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. not as widely used c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. The Internet is: a. slower c. none of the above . node d. Dumb terminals are still used: a. in token-passing networks b.
One type of network that never has a collision is: a. a collision c. users d. a node b. packets c. a central bus d. carriers b. tokens ANS: A 11. The effect of too many collisions is: a. excess traffic b. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. In an Ethernet-based network. data is lost . contention d. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. CSMA c. IEEE 802. it is called: a. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. none of the above c. it is called: a. contention d. nodes d. token-passing b. a collision c. none of the above ANS: D 10. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. excess traffic b. collisions ANS: D 15. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. Multistation Access Unit b. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. Ethernet d. packets b. On networks. the cable overheats d. multiple access ANS: B 12. multiple access ANS: A 13. the network goes down b. nodes c. a central ring c.b. EIA 232 c. more expensive ANS: D d. the network slows down ANS: B 16.3 c. all of the above 9. MAU stands for: a. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17.
The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Ethernet was invented by: a. RG-58U coaxial cable d. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. NIC stands for: a. IBM b. none of the above ANS: A 22. Network Interface Card b. Xerox d.1 ANS: C 18. CCITT ITU-E c. to increase the data rate b. INTEL ANS: C d. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. Network Interface Code d. a BNC connector c. Manchester encoding c. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. IEEE 488. fiber-optic cable b. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. NRZ encoding b. the cable carries baseband signals b. an RJ45 connector c. all of the above ANS: C 24. 50-ohm coaxial cable . twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21.b. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. Network Internal Code c. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. all of the above ANS: C 23. to increase the data rate b. Three-Level encoding d. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c.
b. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. Broadband LANs: a. a T connector ANS: C 26. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. are cheaper c. none of the above ANS: B . use coaxial cables c. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. modulate the data onto a carrier b. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. A hub: a. allow faster bit rates b. an RS11 connector c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. CAT-5 cables: a. Unicode Text Packet 27. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. all of the above ANS: C 28. all of the above ANS: C 31. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. it is faster when used in large networks c. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. both a and b b. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. UTP stands for: a. peer-to-peer networks c. A switch: a. client-server networks d. all of the above ANS: D 32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a.
prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. ANS: Local 2.33. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. none of the above ANS: C 34. ANS: circuit 5. WINDOWS-based d. ANS: packet c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. ANS: star 4. all of the above . In a ____________________-switched network. The Internet is a network of ____________________. UNIX-based c. multitasking b. A "thin" client is: a. basically. Record locking is used to: a. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. a PC with no disk drives b. all nodes are connected to a central computer. ANS: networks 3. store records securely on a server b. ANS: token 7. Novell certified ANS: C 35. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. same as a "dumb" terminal d. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. In a ____________________ network. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. ANS: topology 6.
Hubs can be ____________________ to form. ANS: NIC 17. ANS: fiber-optic 18. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. all collisions must be ____________________. ANS: minimum 15. In CSMA/CD. ANS: stacked 19. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: Contention 9. ANS: length 16. ANS: address . one big hub. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: detected 11.8. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. In CSMA/CD networks. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. In CSMA/CD. in effect. ANS: backbone 13. ANS: 100 mega 14. ANS: collision 10.
so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. It still works like a token-passing ring. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. 3. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. 2. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. 5. send a packet. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. What is a NIC address. The collision would not be detected. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. 4. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails.20. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. .
physical layer ANS: D 7. frame c. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a.25 b. switched circuits ANS: A 3. Metropolitan-Area Network d. 5 ANS: C 5. Multiple Access Network .Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. cable layer b. Packet switching is based on: a. Frame Relay: a. real-time delivery d. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. 8 c. 7 d. Systems Network Architecture c. all of the above c. does less error checking than X. link layer ANS: C 8. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. link layer c. frame layer b. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. is faster than X. user b. error-check layer d. network d. 3 b. link layer d. SNA stands for: a. Standard Network Architecture d.25 ANS: D c. all of the above c. physical layer c. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. Standard Network Access b. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. allows for variable length packets d. MAN stands for: a. transport layer ANS: A 6. Manchester Access Network b. store-and-forward b.
User Datagram Protocol b. connectionless protocol d. looks at the address of each packet c. none of the above c. ATM stands for: a. 5 layers b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. all of the above ANS: D 11. A bridge: a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. datagrams c. Transmission Control Process b. Automatic Test Mode 10. IP stands for: a. TCP stands for: a. operate at the data-link level d.9. HTTP stands for: a. Interconnect Protocol d. UDP stands for: a. User Data Packet d. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. is essentially forever b. Together. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. Universal Data Packet c. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. IP is a: a. TCP/IP consists of: a. non-robust protocol c. Transfer Connection Protocol d. connection-oriented protocol b. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Interconnect Procedure . depends on elapsed time since transmission c. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. Internet Process b. 7 layers ANS: A 14. an application and a process d. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12.
b. none of the above . Internet Service Protocol b. HTML allows: a. Hypertext Markup Language b. web page layout d. File Transfer Protocol b. none of the above ANS: A 23. ISP stands for: a. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. FTP stands for: a. SMTP stands for: a. telneting b. browsers d. a 32-bit binary number b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. all of the above c. HTTP allows the use of: a. file transport ANS: C 19. Internet Service Procedure d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. four groups of base-ten numbers c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. FTP is used to: a. all of the above c. running out of available values d. File Test Procedure d. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. none of the above c. dumb terminals b. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. HTML stands for: a. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. Fast Transport Packet c.
describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. stores all domain addresses d. DNS stands for: a.ANS: D 26. has become obsolete on the Internet b. a "brick wall" d. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. none of the above c. Domain Numbering System d. Open Systems Internet d. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. translates words to numbers c. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. c. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. Open Systems Interconnection b. OSI stands for: a. ANS: Metropolitan 2. A DNS: a. ANS: Wide 3. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. a "firewall" b. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. Domain Name Server b. Domain Naming System . Domain Name System ANS: A 27. a DNS c. ANS: forward 6. ANS: switched 5. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. ANS: leased 4.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Phase-Shift Keying c. modulation index ANS: C 6. FSK c. bits per second c. QAM ANS: A c. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. intermodulation distortion b. In the equation I = ktB. none of the above . QAM stands for: a. too many bits low d. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. bits d. Pulse-Signal Keying b. number of possible states per symbol d. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. margin of noise b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. PSK b. I is measured in: a. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. M is the: a. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. Phase-Signal Keying d. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. amperes b. none of the above c. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye is maximally open c. Full-Signal Keying d. maximum number of symbols per second c. the eye is half open b. Full-Shift Keying b. amperes per second ANS: C 5. AFSK d. PSK stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. FSK stands for: a. too many bits high c. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a.
1200 bps. random bits c. a dibit b. frequency and phase angle b. 1200 bps. International Telecommunications Union d. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. angles of 45. all of the above . The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. ANS: B 16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. For QAM. a training sequence d. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. a random sequence c. 2π/4. amplitude and frequency c. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. CCITT b. angles of 0. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. full-duplex. amplitude and phase angle d.9. the U. full-duplex. FSK c. noise and interference b. a QPSK symbol contains: a. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. half-duplex. low SNR d. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. effects of noise on symbols d. uneven phase and frequency response c. 300 bps. angles of π/4. FSK ANS: A 14. 135. For QAM. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. 225. FSK b. FSK d. International Telecommunications Units c. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. 600 bps. 4 bits d. 180. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. Gaussian bits b. ANSI c. International Telephony Unit b. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. and 270 degrees c. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. To reduce the need for linearity.N. full-duplex. 90. Instead of a single bit. IEEE d. a byte c. and 4π/4 b. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. and 315 degrees d. 3π/4.
5 b. In RS-232. 7 ANS: C 26. signal ground is pin: a. none of the above c. a DCE d. none of the above c. RTS/CTS handshake b. a personal computer would be: a. data-compression schemes b. both a and b d. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. a DTE c. the TIA ANS: C 19. a modem would be: a. MNP2.90 standard is issued by: a. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. a DSR ANS: C 24. a DCE d. a DTR b. ANSI-232C c. 7 c. 1 c. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. none of the above c. a DTR b. 5 b. MNP5 and V. The V. In RS-232. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. 3 d. The official name for RS-232C is: a. the ITU d. 3 d. a DSR ANS: D 25. MNP4. data-compression schemes b. In RS-232. signal ground is pin: a. and MNP10 are all: a.ANS: C 18. the ISO . both a and b d. 1 c.42 bis are both: a. MNP3. flow control is done using: a. a DTE c. RS-232C b. the EIA b. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. both a and b d. ISO-232C/D d. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20.
Double-Speed Loop c. Cable Modem Terminal System d. TD and RD b.ANS: D 27. HFC stands for: a. DSR and DCD c. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. TD and RD ANS: C 29. Software flow control uses: a. TD and RD ANS: A 30. ADSL stands for: a. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. RD. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. Any DSL scheme c. RTS and CTS d. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. TD. DSR. ADSL Lite b. DSR and DCD c. and signal ground . RTS and CTS d. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. Head Frequency Control b. All DSL c. none of the above c. RD. TD. RD. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. DSL stands for: a. Digital Subscriber Line d. TD. ADSL d. XON and XOFF b. RTS. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. +9 volts b. XON and XOFF b. and signal ground ANS: B 28. and signal ground d. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. In a CATV system. CMTS stands for: a. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. Hardware flow control uses: a. +12 volts d. Data Signal Line b. In a CATV system. +15 volts c. Analog DSL d. Hybrid Fiber Control c. Asynchronous DSL b. CTS.
FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: Keying 4. ANS: Telecommunications 12. . ANS: Delta 10. ANS: dibit 8. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ANS: Data 5. ANS: constellation 11. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. In QAM modems. ANS: Quadrature 6. ANS: four 9. ANS: baud 7.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: CTS 3. ANS: Send 2. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. RTS means Request To ____________________. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. The response to RTS is ____________________.
Between hardware flow control and software flow control. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: Equalization 14. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ANS: tree 22. ANS: 54k 15. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: 3 19. ANS: null 20. ____________________ flow control is preferred. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: hardware 18. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. In RS-232. In a CATV system using cable modems.ANS: Trellis 13. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: CMTS 23. . A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ANS: 20k 16. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17.
ANS: Ranging 24. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. A DMT system uses 4. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ANS: ADSL 25. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. If half the modems are active at any given time. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. ANS: 4000 2. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. ANS: lite 26. ANS: DMT 27.
Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. every frame b. Besides data bits. all the signals come from the same source b. the type of media used c. 32 channels d. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. every sixth frame d. TDMA stands for: a. 24 channels ANS: B 6. 64 channels c. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 1. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. timing bit b. the signals come from different sources c. none of the above c. When calculating the maximum number of users. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. TDM is used in RF communications d. the bandwidth of each signal b. In DS-1. signaling bit d. Code-Division Multiple Access b. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. T-bit ANS: D 8.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 12 channels b. framing bit c. none of the above .536 Mbps b. CDMA stands for: a. Time Domain Multiple Access b. every other frame c. every twelfth frame c. 64 kbps c. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. 1. the length of the channel d. Tone Division Multiple Access d. all of the above ANS: C 5. 256 kbps d.
the chip size ANS: B 17. direct-sequence systems. A digital space switch is a: a. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. all of the above c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. time switching c. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. direct-sequence method d. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11.ANS: C 9. space switching d. multiplexer b. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. a wideband receiver d. computer speed ANS: C 16. For a given data rate. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. a narrowband receiver c. use: a. spreading gain d. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. a direct-conversion receiver b. TDM switch ANS: D 12. compared to standard RF systems. much more bandwidth d. all of the above c. a CDMA receiver c. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. about the same bandwidth c. RF gain b. signal switching b. space switching d. time switching c. direct-sequence method d. crosspoint switch . line switching b. To calculate processing gain. much less bandwidth b. computerized Strowger switch d. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. bandwidth of original baseband d. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio b. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a.
each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. ANS: all 4. CDMA: a. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: part 5. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. and ____________________. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.ANS: A 18. ANS: frequency . cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. orthogonal PN sequences c. CDMA requires the use of: a. Using CDMA on a radio channel. ANS: share 2. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. TDMA. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. ANS: CDMA 3. a narrowband receiver c. ANS: all 6. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. In FDM. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. a wideband receiver d. In TDM. For optimal performance. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. ANS: time 7. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. cannot be used on an RF channel d. a direct-conversion receiver b. true-random PN sequences b.
Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: pseudo 18. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. ANS: 1. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. . One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. ANS: time 16. ANS: hopping 19. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: 193 11. ANS: difficult 20. ANS: Rayleigh 17. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.8.544 Meg 12. ANS: space 15. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 8 13. ANS: 24 9. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: AMI 10. ANS: superframe 14.
So the more bandwidth available. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. 2. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. the higher the possible bit rate. ANS: code 24. ANS: ten 23. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. 4. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. Because a spread-spectrum signal is.ANS: difficult 21. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. by definition. ANS: chips 22. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. 5. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system.
f23. If the two sets of frequencies. and so forth. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. .). . the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. f13.. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. f23. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. f12. f13.. have no frequencies in common. 6.. and so forth.) and (f21. f12. f22.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. (f11. At some point in time. f22. . What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission.. as it is in spread-spectrum.
As frequency increases. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. equal reactances b. ideal elements ANS: B 5. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. increases c. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. the skin effect b. Shorted Wire Region d. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. decreases d. increases c. When analyzing a transmission line. an open-wire-line cable d. stays the same b. Shorted Wave Radiation b. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. Time-Domain Response d. lumped c. all of the above c. TDR stands for: a. stays the same b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. distributed d. Transmission Delay Ratio c.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. changes periodically ANS: A 6. decreases d. I2R loss c. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. the Ohmic effect d. SWR stands for: a. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. Total Distance of Reflection b. the resistance of a wire: a. a coaxial cable b. As frequency increases. none of the above . the resistance per foot of the wire used b.
the dielectric constant d. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. For best matching. the inductance per foot b. lower than Z0 c. zero b. the load on a cable should be: a. none of the above . would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. increases with voltage d. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. higher voltage peaks on cable d. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. The optimum value for SWR is: a. higher than Z0 d. the wire resistance c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. equal to Z0 b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. as large as possible d. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. all of the above c. all of the above ANS: B 12. there is no optimum value c. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. increases with length b. one ANS: B 16. standing waves b. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. loss of power to load c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b.ANS: D 9.
A TDR is commonly used to: a. zero c. would be the same b. optimum length of a transmission line d. is zero d. is infinite c. variable SWR b. the voltage c. would be more d. none of the above . is the characteristic impedance b. find the position of a defect in a cable c. voltage SWR d. On a Smith Chart. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. VSWR stands for: a. by using a filter d. dividing it by 2π d. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. directly c. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. transmission line impedances b. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. one d. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. transmission line losses c. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. would be less c. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. multiplying it by 2π b. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. none of the above ANS: D 24. by using a "balun" b. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. assuming it to be zero c. the impedance b.ANS: D 17. Compared to a 300-ohm line. none of the above ANS: C 25. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. the current d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. the characteristic impedance b.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
7. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .2 9.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms. If a cable has an SWR of 1. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.5 8.5. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10.
300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. reuse of frequencies b. 300 × 10 meters per second d. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. all of the above ANS: C 5. perpendicular to each other c. both a and b b. Marconi ANS: C 2. high power levels c. high-power microwave transmitters b. Maxwell b. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. True Electromagnetic d. none of the above ANS: C 7. Transverse Electromagnetic b. the microprocessor chip c. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. 3 × 106 meters per second c. radio waves b. light ANS: D 6. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. Maxwell b. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. TEM stands for: a. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. Armstrong c. gamma waves d. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. Hertz d. high antennas d. Hertz d. Armstrong c. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. Marconi ANS: B 3. the miniature cell-site d. In free space. none of the above c. all of the above ANS: A 4. all of the above .
a flat body of water c. reflection c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. 1 c. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. below about 2 MHz b. none of the above . all of the above ANS: D 10. at microwave frequencies d. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. many ANS: B 12. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. 2 d. EIRP stands for: a. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. a ground-wave antenna d. vertical c. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. Ground waves are most effective: a. when using horizontally polarized waves c. refraction c. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. circular b. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. circular b.9. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. vertical c. horizontal d. an isotropic radiator b. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. 3 b. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. horizontal d. all of the above ANS: D 11.
the radio horizon d. diffraction ANS: C 23. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. frequency diversity b. the reuse of frequencies c. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. close to the transmitter b. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. diffraction d. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. same as sky waves d. diffraction 18. reflected off the ionosphere c. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. multipath distortion d. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. Sky waves: a. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. cancellation due to reflection c. are line-of-sight b. in the "silent" zone d. the cell area is increased c. are same as space waves d. extend the range of a radio communications system d. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. line-of-sight b. fading c. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. fading b.b. diffusion ANS: D d. repeaters ANS: D 25. high power b. A "repeater" is used to: a. in the "skip" zone . far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. the power levels are increased c. Space waves are: a. send a message multiple times over a channel b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c.
As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. ANS: 300 × 106 5. the cell area is split ANS: B d. ANS: transverse 4. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. not possible c. none of the above ANS: B 28. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. a "handoff" process occurs c. ANS: photons 6. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. used for radio telephony b. ANS: Maxwell 2. multiple receivers b.b. c. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. To receive several data streams at once. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. a "funnel" receiver c. a "sectoring" process occurs d. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. Unlike sound or water waves. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. the number of channels is reduced 26. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. The troposphere is the: a. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. ANS: Hertz 3. highest layer of the atmosphere b. also called "ducting" d. a "rake" receiver d. both cells will handle the call b. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through.
ANS: specular . ANS: perpendicular 14. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. ANS: electric 12. ANS: decrease 17. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. ANS: isotropic 9. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. ANS: sphere 10. ANS: plane 11. ANS: 3 × 106 8. ANS: circular 15. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: gain 16. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: perpendicular 13. At a far distance from the source. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________.ANS: medium 7. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field.
The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. ANS: Sky 23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: microprocessor . ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ANS: Space 21. each covering a third of the cell area. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. ANS: skip 24. ANS: low 27. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ANS: Refraction 19. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: reuse 28. ANS: diffraction 20. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ANS: multipath 25.18. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ANS: Sectoring 29. ANS: Ground 22. to reduce interference. ANS: reflected 26. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics.
how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function.9 km 5. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. What. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.SHORT ANSWER 1.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. approximately. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour. what is the power density 10. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2.
the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. the radiated signal c. a Yagi antenna d. infinite ANS: A 8. active antenna b. the reflected signal d. none of the above . the SWR b. from front to back c. in one direction c. 10 dB b. between the minor side-lobes c. directivity c. selectivity d. between half-power points d. in two directions d. a Marconi antenna b. one wavelength c. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. Measured on the ground. 3 dB d. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. all of the above ANS: A 2. one half-wavelength d. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. radiation resistance of the antenna b. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. from +90° to –90° b. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. in all directions b. 0 dB c. SWR along the feed cable d. resonance ANS: A 7. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
ANS: effective 15. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.14. . ANS: balun 17. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: one 24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. ANS: vertical 20. ANS: omnidirectional 23. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: horizontal 18. ANS: gain 16. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. ANS: ground 22. ANS: parasitic 25. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. ANS: wider greater more 19. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________.
ANS: log-periodic 26. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. ANS: focus 28. ANS: horn 30. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. If an antenna has 10. ANS: collimated 29. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. If an LPDA had five elements. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. ANS: five 27.
6. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts . A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.
depends on the frequency it carries c. 1 GHz d. 100 MHz c. it is the only mode possible b. with a magnetic field probe c. TE 11 d. The UHF range is: a. 10 GHz b. below the microwave range b. both b and c ANS: D 8. TM10 ANS: C 5. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. it is dominant c. TE 10 a. TM 01 d. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. same as the microwave range . 100 GHz ANS: B 2. through a hole in the waveguide b.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above ANS: A 4. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. TM 01 ANS: C 6. TE 01 c. is fixed b. the power level of the signal d. above the microwave range d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. the point of signal injection b. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. TE 01 b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above c. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. TM11 b. of its circular symmetry d. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. the shape of the waveguide c.
A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. their directivity b. none of the above c. their coupling specification d. couple components on a circuit board d. gallium assembly ANS: A c. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. Transverse Wave Transmission b. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. their insertion loss c. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. separates signals among various ports d. GaAs stands for: a. none of the above . an H-plane TEE b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. A "circulator" is a device that: a. TWT stands for: a. all of the above c. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. none of the above c.ANS: D 9. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. Traveling-Wave Tube d. tuned circuit b. all of the above ANS: D 10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. gallium arsenide b. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. An "isolator" is a device that: a. antenna d. separates signals among various ports d. gallium astenite d. couple sections of waveguide b. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. a "magic" TEE d.
slots c. Yagis d. mechanical pressure d. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. IMPATT stands for: a. YIG ANS: B 23. none of the above c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. klystron d. implied power at transmission terminal d. YIG ANS: C 21. TWT c. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18.17. all of the above c. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. all of the above ANS: A 24. radio detection and ranging d. impact avalanche and transit time b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. RADAR uses: a. YIG stands for: a. TWT c. TWT c. YIG ANS: A 22. an electric field b. Fresnel lenses b. an "exciter" signal 20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. remote detection and ranging . magnetron b. radio ranging b. magnetron b. pulsed transmission b. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. none of the above c. a magnetic field ANS: B c. klystron d. continuous transmission ANS: D c. magnetron b. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. klystron d. RADAR stands for: a. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. the Doppler effect d.
the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: zero 3. . The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. ANS: high 8. In a circular waveguide. In a waveguide. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ANS: two 6. In a waveguide. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.26. ANS: electric 5. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. increases with increasing repetition rate c. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. ANS: slower 9. increases with increasing pulse duration c. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. In a waveguide. In TE20 mode. decreases with increasing pulse period b. none of the above ANS: B 27. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: faster 10. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. ANS: Dispersion 2. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ANS: TM01 7. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. In TE10 mode. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ANS: dominant 4.
ANS: linear 17. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: smaller 20. ANS: cavity 14. ANS: high 13. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. ANS: patch 19.ANS: decreases 11. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. ANS: wave 16. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. ANS: hybrid 12. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. . A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: slot 18. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes.
ANS: 15 km 7. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. ANS: 14. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses.ANS: 3 GHz 2. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 300 meters . Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.8 6.
9% b. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. In digital microwave systems. additional repeaters increase the: a. noise level d. Line-Of-Sight d. Microwave systems use: a. jitter c. all of the above . all of the above ANS: C 7. 90% c. jitter b. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. section c. skip b.99% ANS: D 4. 99. jump ANS: B 2. additional repeaters increase the: a. SSB ANS: D 3. 200 watts b. 99. excessive noise d. Too much antenna gain causes: a. noise level d. none of the above ANS: A 5. LOS stands for: a. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. 20 watts d. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. 99% d. Line-Of-Signal c. reliability c. Loss Of Skip b. reliability c. hop d. all of the above ANS: B 6.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2 watts c. jitter b. In analog microwave systems. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. FM b. a very narrow microwave beam b. QAM d.
multipath reception b. IF type b. power d. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. above 10 GHz d. high-gain antennas b. Fading is caused by: a. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. Microwave repeaters can be: a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. MMDS stands for: a. baseband type ANS: D 16. all of the above ANS: B 17. it requires less power b. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. ducting d. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. regenerative type d. less bandwidth is required c. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. below 10 GHz c. all of the above . The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. none of the above ANS: A 11. accumulation of noise is reduced d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12.9. all of the above c. all of the above ANS: A 14. high level of ERP c. always b. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. low level of transmitted power b. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. diversity c.
Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. In microwave systems. One microwave link is called a ____________________. LMDS stands for: a. In digital microwave systems. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1.b. bidirectional b. multidirectional d. none of the above . Local Multichannel Distribution System d. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. ANS: year 4. Local Microwave Distribution System b. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. ANS: temperature 6. LMDS is: a. ANS: fading c. ANS: studio 3. ANS: hop 2. ANS: jitter 5. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. ANS: noise density 7. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter.
Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. ANS: Repeaters 12. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. what would it be. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . ANS: diversity 10. MMDS is unidirectional. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. ANS: baseband 13.8. approximately.4 meters 3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. ANS: space 9. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. ANS: noise 14. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: ten 11. but ____________________ is bidirectional. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________.
ANS: –42. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB .4 dBm 4. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. The noise power is –100 dBm. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. ANS: 201 K 5.
Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. 625 d. FCC c. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. contrast c. 25 c. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 60 ANS: D 7. Luminance refers to: a. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. National Television Systems Council d. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. chroma d. 60 ANS: B 6. 1250 ANS: A 5. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. Red-Green Burst b. 525 : 625 d. 3 : 4 b. 525 c.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 30 d. 50 b. NTSC stands for: a. National Television Systems Committee c. 30 d. Red-Green-Blue . 25 c. RGB stands for: a. Red-Green Bandwidth d. 625 : 525 c. EIA b. brightness b. IEEE ANS: C 3. 1024 b. IRE d. raster c. National Television Systems Commission b. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 50 b.
Y I Q refers to: a. pic ANS: C 16. whiter than white b. blacker than black ANS: B 12. composite color signal. horizontal resolution: a. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. white c. black d. quadrature video color component d. all white d. whiter than white b. in-phase color component.ANS: A 9. black d. lumins ANS: C 10. The smallest picture element is called a: a. in-phase color component. The maximum luminance level is called: a. in-phase video component. peak white ANS: B 11. quadrature phase color component c. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. composite video signal. all of the above c. NTSC units . luminance signal. dot b. whiter than white c. In a color TV receiver. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. is less than vertical resolution d. max white b. pixel d. blacker than black ANS: D 13. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. foot-candles b. When measured in lines. white c. Luminance is measured in: a. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. equalize the DC level d. is greater than vertical resolution b. none of the above c. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. IRE units d. maintain horizontal sync b. quadrature phase color component b.
separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. suppressed-carrier AM b. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. SSB c. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: D 20. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. about the same d. FM ANS: B 19. suppressed-carrier AM b. SAP stands for: a. much higher d. the flyback transformer b. vestigial sideband AM d. sync amplitude pulse d.17. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. all of the above ANS: D 22. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. detect the presence of a color video signal b. the video transformer d. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. much greater c. much less b. sync audio pulse . Compared to a monochrome CRT. FM ANS: C 21. about the same c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. vestigial sideband AM d. separate audio program b. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. much lower b. SSB c. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. Compared to the luminance signal. the isolation transformer c. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the yoke ANS: C 24. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. SSB c. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a.
ANS: Aquadag 2. ANS: NTSC 3. AFPC stands for: a. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. Color information is called ____________________. none of the above . allowed full picture chroma b. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. ANS: porch c. During the horizontal blanking interval. ANS: scanning 4. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953.d. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. ANS: aspect 7. automatic frequency and picture control d. Brightness information is called ____________________. ANS: luma luminance 8. ANS: composite 6. ANS: retraces 5.
ANS: 525 16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. ANS: 1.5 12. ANS: pixels 15. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. ANS: separate 19. . Picture elements are called ____________________. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. not including blanking.3 14. ANS: phosphor 22. ANS: 62. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.10. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. ANS: ultor 20. ANS: position 11.58 18. ANS: 10 13. ANS: 3. ANS: green 17. ANS: 20 to 30 21. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: flyback 23. ANS: comb 24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. ANS: dBmV 26. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: phase 30. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. ANS: saturation 29. ANS: convergence . The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: head 27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: killer 25. Color intensity is called ____________________. ANS: purity 31. ANS: vectorscope 28.
downlink and uplink ANS: A 3.: a. 103 watts 2 b.780 km d. azimuth and elevation c. is constant b. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6.800 km b. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. perigee and apogee d. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. apogee and perigee c. declination and elevation b. downlink d. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 10 watts d. 5 to 25 watts c.578 km c. solar cells b. 3. 35.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. transponders c. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. uplink and downlink b. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. azimuth and declination d. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. batteries d. is zero (freefall) c. 50 to 250 watts d. 500 to 2500 watts b. 101 watts c. all of the above . The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. plate ANS: C 4. 357. 104 watts ANS: C 8. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. footprint b. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. earth station c. respectively.
time-division multiple access d. television receive only b.ANS: A 9. none of the above . orbital adjustments d. low power to a large antenna b. ring d. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. mesh c. DBS stands for: a. LNA stands for: a. antenna maintenance b. television repeater only ANS: A 14. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. backdown c. video satellite b. low north angle ANS: A 12. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. high power to a small antenna c. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. TDMA stands for: a. transmit delay minimum aperture c. a VSAT system uses: a. direct-broadcast satellite c. very small antenna terminal d. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. VSAT stands for: a. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. power-down b. direct-broadcast system d. TVRO stands for: a. low power to a small antenna d. low-noise array c. On the uplink from a terminal. backoff d. none of the above c. low-noise amplifier b. star b. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. repeater c. low-noise amplitude d. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. television remote origin d. very small aperture terminal c. decibels of signal b.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Emission Strength Number d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Personal Communications Service b. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. RCC stands for: a. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Personal Cell phone Service d. Manual Identification Number b. American Mobile Phone System b. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. none of the above c. Mobile Switching Center b. Numerical Access Mode b. PCS stands for: a. Electronic Serial Number b. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. ESN stands for: a. Number Access Module d. Maximum In-band Noise d. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Number Assignment Module c. Maximum Signal Carrier d. none of the above c. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Radio Common Carrier b. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. NAM stands for: a. MTSO stands for: a. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Minimum In-band Noise c. MIN stands for: a. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. Regional Cellular Carrier d. MSC stands for: a. Advanced Mobile Phone Service .Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Portable Communications Systems c. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. AMPS stand for: a.
maximum power level of a cell phone c. recognize an AMPS system c. DCC stands for: a. base-station class ANS: D 11. FSK c. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. code number of a cell phone b. control access to the cell site b. Digital Communications Carrier d. In an AMPS system. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. AM c. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a.9. CMAC stands for: a. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. signal classification (analog or digital) d. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. The CMAC is used to: a. Signal Class Mark d. Digital Color Code b. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. Direct Channel Code . Supervisory Access Tone d. Service Class Mark b. SID stands for: a. SAT stands for: a. set its transmitted power level d. SCM identifies the: a. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. Central Mobile Access Control d. Serial-Code Mode c. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. set the access code of the cell phone c. SCM stands for: a. Station Antenna Tower b. voice is sent using: a. none of the above c. System Identification Number d. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. set the transmit power of the cell phone d.
2 km b. FSK b. air interface ANS: D 22. erlangs ANS: B 24. decrease the number of cells d. FM ANS: B d. less than 600 mW. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. number of users d. CDMA ANS: C 19. none of the above c. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. 4 watts ANS: B 20. increase the ERP b. CDPD stands for: a. In an AMPS system. less than 600 µW.5 km ANS: D 23. RF interface b. as small as possible d. Coded Digital Packet Data d. BSC stands for: a. FM d. Basic Service Code . d. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. BSC c. CDMA 18. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c.b. 0. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. Basic Service Contract d. Code-Division Packet Data b. AM c. Phone traffic is measured in: a. increase the number of cells c. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. number of blocked calls c. MTSO d. Base Station Controller b. control-channel signals are sent using: a. calls b. c. between 1 and 2 watts b. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c.
Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: three 7. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. ANS: 0. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. . ANS: handoff 5. ANS: land station 11. handoffs will occur too frequently. For security. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. ANS: AMPS 3. ANS: reuse 4. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. A portable. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. ANS: III three 10. ANS: 600 mW 9. ANS: 800 2.1. ANS: I one 8.5 6. ANS: attenuation 12.
Compared with AMPS. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. ANS: traffic 15. If a 28. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. ANS: MTSO 14. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. ANS: splitting 18. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: picocells 20. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________.ANS: public 13. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. ANS: microcell 19. ANS: erlangs 16. ANS: 1. 2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. ANS: dropped 17. 2.6 3. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. What is the traffic in erlangs? . ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1.
ANS: 30 4. the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. . What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.
AT&T b. bigger b. AMPS was designed for: a. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. 800 MHz c. POTS b.9 GHz b. Bell Labs d. GSM is used in: a. second-generation ANS: B 2. PCS cell sites are: a. Qualcomm c. 4 b. 1. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. from mobile to mobile d. 2 c. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. Compared to AMPS. North America d. many ANS: B 7. CDMA technology was invented by: a. Europe ANS: D c. voice ANS: D 6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. smaller ANS: B 5. distributed d. 3 d.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. from the base to the mobile b. higher-power c. same as the uplink c. all of the above c. digital-generation . Lucent ANS: D 8. all of the above c. Asia b. third-generation d. use built into an automobile d. 900 MHz d. first-generation b.
less than in a TDMA phone c. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14.9. TDMA ANS: D c. frequency hopping b. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. all of the above c. CDMA d. bearer channels d. In GSM. all of the above c. voice channels are called: a. greater than in a TDMA phone b. no PCS system c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. TDMA only b. GSM only d. AMPS uses: a. all of the above . CDMA b. IS-95 uses: a. In GSM. TDMA ANS: C 17. IS-136 uses: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. none of the above 11. no better than in an AMPS phone d. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. Short Inbound Message b. talking channels c. voice channels ANS: A 10. CDMA d. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. GSM uses: a. Subscriber ID Method c. Other things being equal. Subscriber ID Module d. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. spread-spectrum d. CDMA d. frequency hopping b. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. SIM stands for: a. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. TDMA c. traffic channels b. IMSI stands for: a. frequency hopping b.
CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. all frequencies are used in all cells b. ANS: smaller 5. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. Internet access d. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. orthogonal . wider roaming area b. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. rotating d. ANS: 1900 4. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. ANS: second 3.ANS: B 18. Compared to AMPS. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. common b. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. unique ANS: D 20. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. In CDMA: a. ANS: GSM 6. ANS: Personal 2. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. faster data rates c. In North America. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Besides TDMA and CDMA.
ANS: soft 9. ANS: less 14. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. ANS: Packet 18. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: Universal . The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. ANS: Frequency 13. ANS: closed 17. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. ANS: 50 16. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications.7. ANS: all 11. ANS: Mobile 19. ANS: frequency hopping 8. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. Unlike AMPS. ANS: Walsh 10. ANS: variable 15. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. Unlike other systems. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: random 12.
but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. 4. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. 8. it never goes to zero. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. With offset QPSK. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. To demodulate. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: Wireless 21. 3. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. Why was PCS assigned to 1. and what causes it? . 2.20. 7. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. 6. 5. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping.
This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base. .ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near.
require error detection d. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. 802. IEEE Standard Message b. 802. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. A typical pager system does not: a.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. CAPCODE is: a. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. all of the above c. and Messaging d.10 c. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. Scientific. Industrial. require "handoffs" b.12 c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. POCSAG stands for: a. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. Scientific. Industrial. the UHF band. the VHF band. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. In a one-way pager system: a. transmitters use relatively high power d. all of the above ANS: D 5. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. the UHF band only c. Pagers use: a. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. the VHF band only b. and Medical . ISM stands for: a.
VHF band b.11 ANS: B d. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. CDMA b. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. none of the above . Time Delay Difference d. CDMA b. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. infrared band c. TDD net d. CSMA/CD d. 2 to 16 nodes c.13 8. scatternet c. 2 to 8 nodes d. Bluetooth Service System d. ISM band d. 802. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. Time-Division Duplex b. Total Distance Delay c. UHF band ANS: C 13. CSMA/CA c. micronet b. ISM band b. all of the above ANS: A 10. Bluetooth uses: a. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. Bluetooth uses the: a. Basic Service Set b. 802. all of the above c. TDD stands for: a. 10 cm to 100 meters c. 10 cm to 1 meter c. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. multinet ANS: D 16. infrared band ANS: C 9. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. UHF band d. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. VHF band c.b. BSS stands for: a. 2 nodes b. QPSK d.
1 meter c. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. 10 feet c. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. 1 meter b. ANS: capcode 2. ANS: Post 4. within 10 feet c. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. cannot penetrate walls b.11 6. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. can use reflected infrared beams d. all of the above 20. Infrared Data Association b. several hundred meters b. The range of an IRDA system is: a. several meters d. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. Infrared networks: a. . ANS: 802. IRDA stands for: a. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a.b. 10 meters ANS: A 19. ANS: 10 5. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. several thousand meters. 1 foot d. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. ANS: TDMA 3.
ANS: 1 watt 7. ANS: 1 meter . A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. ANS: piconet 9. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: ISM 8. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: piconets 10.
Scattering causes: a. zero loss ANS: C 8. none of the above ANS: B 5. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. loss b. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. glass b. greater d. carry current b. 0. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. both a and b d. the same c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d.4 dB per km b. all of the above c. 4 db per km d. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. none of the above c. Compared to the core. 40 dB per km c.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. dispersion ANS: A 7.02 dB c. 1 dB c. all of the above . less b. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. plastic ANS: A 4. all of the above c. generate EMI d. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. modal dispersion b. in an explosive environment b. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. waveguide dispersion d. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. intersymbol interference d. 0.
leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. APD stands for: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. amps per watt c. all of the above ANS: D 11. responsivity is measured in: a. 0. ANS: reflection c. E-H current ANS: C 15. an e-v ANS: C 12. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. zero-point current d. SC d. In the core.02 dB c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. Avalanche Photo Detector d. dark current b. 0. 0.b. baseline current c. µW per amp d. 3 dB ANS: B 10. mA per joule b. LASER stands for: a. Avalanche Photodiode b.2 db d. 3 dB 9. an erg b. ST c. For a light detector. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. 1 dB b. a phonon . In a PIN diode. SMA b. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. Advanced Photo Detector c. a photon d.2 db ANS: A d. The quantum of light is called: a.
The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. For laser diodes. . ANS: linewidth 11. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. In multimode fiber. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ANS: sine 6. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. ANS: infrared 9. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth.2. ANS: loose-tube 14. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: internal 7. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: intramodal 8. ANS: graded 10. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. ANS: energy 5. ANS: critical 4. With optical fiber. ANS: time 12. ANS: Intersymbol 13. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. ANS: PIN 20. ANS: photon 19. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: laser 18. ANS: single 17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. ANS: look . ANS: pigtail 16. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. For safety.ANS: tight-buffer 15.
FITL stands for: a. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Synchronous Optical Network d. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. defect in the glass b. type of optical network c. type of pulse d. excess gain c. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. DWDM stands for: a. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. SDH b. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. FDDI stands for: a. bit stuffing c. gain margin c. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. none of the above c. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. WDM ANS: A 8. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. A Soliton is a: a. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber In The Loop b.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. type of particle ANS: C 7. bit-synch d.
Synchronous Transport Signal b. all of the above ANS: D 13. gigabit Ethernet b. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FTTC d. In SONET. Synchronous Transmission System c. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Optical Cable type 1 . 100 miles d.b. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. high-speed Ethernet d. FITL b. system margin ANS: B d. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. overdrive 9. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. obsolete d. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Time-Division Relay c. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. In SONET. 100 km b. FDDI c. FDDI c. Optical Channel one d. c. experimental ANS: B 14. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. OC-1 stands for: a. Typically. 10 km ANS: C 10. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. STS stands for: a. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. not possible c. 1000 miles c. common b. ANS: Curb 2. Optical Carrier level one b. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12.
SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. ANS: token 14. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: pump 9.84 11. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: Synchronous 6. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: stuffing 12. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. ANS: pointer 13. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: WDM 10. ANS: Hierarchy 4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: erbium 8. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. ANS: Wavelength 5.ANS: Loop 3. ANS: 51. ANS: Distributed 7. ANS: opposite .
What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . ANS: 4 23. ANS: 774 21. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 1 24. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables.15. ANS: transport 25. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: node 16. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: 100 M 18. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: 810 20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 9 22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: multi 17. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. In SONET.
1 MHz 2. receiver. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter.6 nanoseconds . ANS: 86.
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