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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
In ____________________. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. and direction b. ANS: 1901 3. ANS: base 4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: zero 6. or parts. . In ____________________. ANS: bandwidth 7. its amplitude and frequency d. The more information per second you send. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. its amplitude. frequency. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. its amplitude. frequency. its amplitude c. The part. ANS: 1863 2. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. ANS: TDM 10. ANS: greater larger wider 8. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band.25. ANS: FDM 9. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. ANS: channel 5.
ANS: 300 million 15. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. ANS: 30 12. ANS: Fourier 17. ANS: wavelength 14. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. Channel. Receiver. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. Transmitter. For satellite communications. . The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. Mathematically. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. Destination 2. ANS: Source. ANS: 300 13. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. In free space. ANS: solar 19. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz.ANS: very high 11. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. Name five types of internal noise. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________.
pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. the output of which is a noise current. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. ANS: 20 dB. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. NF = 100 8. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. Find the total NF for the pair. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current.5 9. transit-time 3. ANS: 1.4 10. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. Shot. Likewise. Calculate the total noise voltage. ANS: 5. Find NF.ANS: Thermal. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. 5. Likewise. Find its noise figure. 4. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. ANS: 50 µV 6. Partition. 1/f. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. both across the same 100-ohm load. both in dB and as a ratio. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. . thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
reactance only . capacitance and resistance only b. the Miller Effect is due to: a.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. using a common-emitter amplifier b. inductance of collector lead b. base time c. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. neutralize amplifiers d. capacitance. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. Miller time ANS: B 2. all of the above c. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. charge time b. have no effect on Q c. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. In a BJT. A real capacitor actually contains: a. and resistance d. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. a simple form of bandpass filter b. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. inductance. transit time d. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. both a and b d. A resonant circuit is: a. "multiply" the Q d. none of the above c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. base-to-collector capacitance c. base-to-emitter capacitance d. it cannot be avoided c. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. reduce the Miller effect c. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. The "Miller Effect" can: a.
transformer coupling d. a piezoelectric crystal c. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. a piezoelectric crystal . a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. In RF amplifiers. but at just one frequency d. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. both a and b. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. only built with FETs c. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a tapped inductor b. decoupling it d. loop gain equal to unity b. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. the Hartley criteria d. RC coupling c. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. direct coupling b. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. it requires: a. a signal containing harmonics d. the Bode criteria b. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. a tapped inductor b. none of the above ANS: C 13. the loop-gain criteria c. none of the above ANS: A 11. an RC time constant d.9. The Clapp oscillator is: a. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. an RC time constant d. a linear amplifier c. a nonlinear circuit b. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. impedance matching is usually done with: a. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16.
ANS: short 2. contains the input frequencies c. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. If two signals. A varactor is: a. "VFO" stands for: a. In a balanced mixer. the output: a. are fed to a mixer. a diode ANS: D c. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. does not contain the input frequencies d. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. the output: a. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . used in tuner circuits d. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". c. At UHF frequencies and above. Generally. none of the above ANS: A 20. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt).17. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. used for a precise frequency b. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. all of the above 18. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. all of the above ANS: D 19. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c.
g. ANS: Q 9.ANS: distributed 3. parallel . Electrically. ANS: 10 10. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. ANS: series. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. collector current). Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: neutralization 12. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: components 6. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: bypass 8. In a class C RF amplifier. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. it is called a ____________________. ANS: tuned circuit 11. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: capacitive 13. ANS: shielding 5. In high-frequency RF circuits. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: ground-plane 4.
ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1.14.05% 7. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. 0. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. 5. V1 and V2. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. ANS: linear 15. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. To produce sum and difference frequencies. Two sinusoidal signals.4 µH 2. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer.1 4. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . V2 is a 5MHz signal. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. At some bias point. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3.
Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.8.
equal to the carrier power c. it will produce the frequencies: a. m = Va / Vc d. both a and b d. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. the total sideband power is: a.414 × carrier power c. is: a. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. AM stands for: a. splatter ANS: C 6. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). half the carrier power b. Angle Modulation d. twice the carrier power d. the amplitude signal d. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. none of the above c. m. At 100% modulation. m = Emax / Emin d. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = ωa / ωc c. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. then the modulation index. distortion b. Antenna Modulation . the carrier signal ANS: A 3. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. Overmodulation causes: a. Audio Modulation b. m = (Va / Vc)2 b.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. m. The modulation index. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. is: a. 1. m = Emin / Emax c. the baseband signal b. none of the above ANS: A 8. none of the above c. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d.
incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. 1. 500 watts d.ANS: C 9. 1000 watts c. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. 10 kHz d. 5 kHz c. both a and b d. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. is more efficient b. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. none of the above c. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a.005 MHz b. you would expect: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. Peak Envelope Product d. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. none of the above c. requires too much bandwidth c. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. requires less bandwidth d. the received RF signal to increase d. requires too much power d. 0 watts ANS: D 17. the time-domain signal b. PEP stands for: a. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. single-carrier b. AM is susceptible to noise c. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. all of the above ANS: C 13. none of the above ANS: B 10. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. all of the above ANS: D 14. Peak Envelope Power b. none of the above . As compared to plain AM. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. SSB AM: a. 250 watts b. sideband-carrier d.
all of the above ANS: C 18. ANS: simple 2. Compared to the USB. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. Compared to the USB. m1 + m2 c. digital data b. the power in the LSB is ____________________. commercial AM stations use low power c. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. both a and b b. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. be set to USB mode c. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. all of the above ANS: D 19. ANS: two 5. The total modulation index is: a. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. audio c. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. In AM. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. ANS: the same 6. ANS: the same . ANS: envelope 4. the information in the LSB is ____________________. the receiver must: a. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. video d. ANS: inefficient 3.b. reinsert the carrier d.
What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. the carrier power _________________________. With a 1-MHz carrier. In AM.3. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________.4. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. and 0. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation.7. In AM. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. as the modulation index increases. what is the power in the USB at 70. then the USB will extend up to ____________________.5. In AM. ANS: less 8. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. ANS: remains constant 9. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. ANS: 6000 Hz 11.6 . You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. ANS: one 10. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1.707 4. 0. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation.
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts .
When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. The FM modulation index: a. the noise effect b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. fractals ANS: B 5. Near Band FM d. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. the capture effect c. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. the limit effect ANS: B c. Narrowband FM c. Armstrong's Rule b. NBFM stands for: a. National Broadcast FM b. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. none of the above . One way to derive FM from PM is: a. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. Carson's Rule d. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. Mathematically. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. it is band-limited at the receiver d. Taylor series b.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Bessel functions d. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. the threshold effect d. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. it is called: a.
using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. ANS: angle 2. the threshold effect d. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. the time delay between the L and R channels d. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. FM stereo: a. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. is not compatible with mono FM . can use amplitude modulation b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. ANS: data c. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. the time it takes for the circuit to work b.8. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. all of the above c. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. is monaural d. none of the above ANS: A 9. the "two-station" effect b. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. An SCA signal: a. the capture effect c.
the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. In FM. the modulation index ____________________. ANS: amplitude 8. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. ANS: infinite 10. As the FM modulation index increases. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: better 4. as the frequency deviation decreases. the modulation index ____________________. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: frequency 9. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. ANS: decreases 14.3. ANS: wider greater 5. their power ____________________. Mathematically. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. Compared to AM. In FM. Compared to AM. . Mathematically. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: increases 13. ANS: C 6. ANS: decreases 11. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. as the modulating frequency decreases. In FM. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: any number 12.
Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Carson's 17. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. For certain values of mf. ANS: capture 20. ANS: Bessel 18. such as 2. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule.ANS: increases 15. 1-kHz audio signal? . What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4.4. ANS: threshold 19. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________.
Record the audio frequency. then δ is 11 kHz. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes.1. For example. At a modulation index of 2. Using a spectrum analyzer. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0.5.4. At a modulation index of 2. 5. . what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. At a modulation index of 2.5.4 watts 6. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.2 watt) 8. Using Carson's rule.ANS: 2 5. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48.
ALC is used to: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. Accurate Level Control d. With high-level AM: a. none of the above . the RF amplifiers must be linear d. all of the above c. heats the transmitter d. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. all of the above c. maximize transmitted power d. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. expansion d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. none of the above ANS: B 4. In an AM transmitter. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. With low-level AM: a. minimum RF power is required d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. Baseband compression produces: a. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. all of the above ANS: D 3. With high-level AM: a. a smaller number of signals d. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. agility c. keep the modulation close to 100% b. ALC stands for: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. Amplitude Level Control b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. may require water cooling b. VFO b. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. is a measure of efficiency c.
essentially pulse-duration modulation c. all of the above ANS: B 17. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. a temporary load b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. all of the above ANS: B 10. the resistor must be: a. the resistor is called: a. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. the modulating amplifier c. is complex c. has variable frequency b. none of the above . very efficient c. the power level of the carrier b. the carrier ANS: A 12. pi network c. A Class D amplifier is: a. noninductive d. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. In high-level AM. "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. the driver stage b. a dummy load d. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. both a and b b.ANS: C 9. wire-wound c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. 1% tolerance or better b. In high-level AM. a heavy load c. the RF amplifier d. 300 ohms resistive b. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. none of the above ANS: C 13. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. T network d. 50 ohms resistive c. has variable amplitude d. 75 ohms resistive d. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. a test load ANS: B 16. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14.
all of the above c.b. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. start with a quadrature signal d. a balanced modulator b. a frequency multiplier d. a mechanical filter c. none of the above c. none of the above ANS: A 22. A direct FM modulator: a. Automatic Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. a mixer ANS: A d. Audio Frequency Control . a crystal filter d. start with full-carrier AM b. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. Frequency multipliers are: a. none of the above ANS: C 21. both a and b d. none of the above 20. essentially mixers d. An indirect FM modulator: a. all of the above c. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. To generate a SSB signal: a. both a and b b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. essentially balanced modulators b. the carrier frequency can be raised b. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. integrates the modulating signal c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. both a and b d. none of the above ANS: B 23. AFC stands for: a. The carrier is suppressed in: a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. With mixing: a.
_________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: agility 5. ANS: compression 7. ANS: expansion 8. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ANS: Industry Canada 4. ANS: carrier 2. ANS: FCC 3. ANS: efficiently 10. a ____________________ stage is used. ALC is a form of ____________________. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: compression 9. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. In the USA.d. ANS: linear 11. . Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. In Canada. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________.
ANS: T 15. ANS: duration 20. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: mixing 22. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. ANS: DSBSC . The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: receiver 18. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers.ANS: buffer 12. ANS: harmonic 16. ANS: mismatch 17. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: 50 14. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". To generate a SSB signal. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. To allow a high modulation percentage. ANS: D 21. ANS: driver 19. ANS: higher 13.
What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. ANS: phase 24. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: reactance 25. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz .005 MHz 6. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. To pass the USB. Assuming high-level modulation.001%. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop.23. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC.8% 3.
what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. ANS: First. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.7. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. .
all of the above c. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. indeterminate frequency d. two types of adjusting tools b. "IF" stands for: a. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. AGC stands for: a. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. Audio Gain Control b. Active Gain Control d. small adjustable inductors d. Trimmers and padders are: a. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the mixer d. "Skin effect" refers to: a. Armstrong b. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. Active Gain Conversion c. none of the above ANS: C 5. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. is above the RF frequency c. Hertz ANS: C 3. the spurious response and the tracking d. Foster c. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. the tuner b. small adjustable capacitors . Seeley d. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. image frequency c.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. intermediate frequency b. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b.
with two signals close in frequency.b. Basically. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. all of the above c. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b.414 dB is ideal b. the detector ANS: D 15. monochrome video receivers d. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 0. is below the RF frequency c. sensitivity measures: a. both values are basically equivalent d. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. a value of 1. it increases sensitivity c. voice communications systems b. is fixed. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. Phase distortion is important in: a. all of the above c. typically at 455 kHz. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. a value of 1. ANS: C 9. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. Basically. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. selectivity measures: a. none of the above c. it increases selectivity d. When comparing values for shape factor: a.0 is ideal d. color video receivers ANS: B c. the mixer b. there is no ideal value . how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. the IF amplifiers d. none of the above ANS: A 11.707 is ideal ANS: C 13.
the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. A common AM detector is the: a. the AGC c. quadrature detector d. a diode ANS: D c. ratio detector ANS: D 22. a BFO d. a product detector c. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. PLL b. all of the above c. none of the above ANS: C 20. prior to mixing b. A common SSB detector is: a. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. all of the above c. the dynamic range of the receiver b. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. a PLL b. enter the mixer. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. An FM detector is the: a. noise generated in the receiver d. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. envelope detector ANS: B 21. ratio detector d. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. prior to detection d. images cannot be rejected . all of the above ANS: C 23. they are faster than silicon diodes b. PLL b. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. enter the mixer. An image must be rejected: a.16. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer.
ratio detection . AFC stands for: a. squelch d. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. Automatic Frequency Control d. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. all of the above ANS: C 28. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. limiting ANS: B 30.24. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. The function of AFC is: a. you need to: a. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. a PLL detector b. to limit noise response c. envelope detection d. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. reinject the carrier c. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. Audio Frequency Compensator b. coherent detection ANS: B 27. use double conversion d. AGC c. The function of a limiter is: a. to remove amplitude variations b. BFO stands for: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. LNA stands for: a. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. Low-Noise Audio d. a quadrature detector d. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. AFC b. carrier detection b. to limit dynamic range d. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. Foster-Seeley detector c. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c.
it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. SAW stands for: a. it is a stable bandpass filter d. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. SINAD stands for: a. Distorted Signal Packet d. all of the above ANS: C 36. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. TRF stands for: a. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. DSP stands for: a. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Dynamic Signal Properties b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c.c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. ANS: superheterodyne 2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. none of the above ANS: B 33. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. none of the above c. Digital Signal Processor c. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. Tuned Receiver Function c. The main function of the AGC is to: a. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. The important property of a SAW is: a. Software-Activated Wave . c.
ANS: mixer 8. In a superhet. ANS: Sensitivity . ANS: intermediate IF 9. ANS: front end 7. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: AGC 10. ANS: lower 12. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. In a superhet. the other changes with it. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. In a receiver. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. In low-side injection. ANS: skin 5. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: track 4. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. ANS: autodyne 11. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: Selectivity 13. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: 1918 6.
ANS: coherent 21. ANS: noisy 26. While still commonly found. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals.14. ANS: detector 17. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. ANS: carrier 20. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. ANS: obsolescent 23. ANS: S 22. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: image 16. Unlike the PLL detector. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: amplitude 24. ANS: product 19. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: conversion 15. . FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. ANS: gate 25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications.
ANS: A 27. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: stagger 29. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: higher 31. Compared to tuned circuits. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. In a block converter. ANS: S 34. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. ANS: IF 33. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. ANS: limiting 35. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. Typically. ANS: over 28. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: fixed constant 32. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: adjustment 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal.
Assuming high-side injection.25 4.20 kHz 2. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3.5 MHz. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5.01 . The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0.06 7. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6.
SR = 2fmax c. all of the above ANS: C 3. The first digital code was the: a. SR = 2fmax c. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Ten-Digital Manchester d. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. Baudot code ANS: C 2. none of the above . a filter d. Hartley's Law is: a. true binary numbers ANS: A c. signal degradation can be removed using: a. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. an amplifier c. SR = 2fmax c. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. a fixed sample rate d.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In digital transmission. an analog-to-digital converter c. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Morse code d. ASCII code b. Ten Dual-Manchester c. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. I = ktB b. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. a regenerative repeater b. Natural Sampling does not use: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. I = ktB b. I = ktB b. a sample-and-hold circuit b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax c.
the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. ANS: D 10. the Logarithmic Law b. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PDM c. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. the A Law c. the µ Law (mu law) c. companding uses: a.9. You can have one or the other. In North America. none of the above ANS: A 15. PPM b. c. PAM ANS: B 12. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. PPS ANS: D 13. too few samples per second d. the α Law (alpha law) d. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. They are the same thing. Companding is used to: a. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. They are two types of sampling error. a sample alias b. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. all of the above . b. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. d. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. The immediate result of sampling is: a. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. but not both. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. PWM d. PCM d. noise b. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. decreases as the sample rate increases b. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. PDM c.
the bit rate is too high b. Compared to PCM. the µ Law (mu law) .ANS: D 17. 4-bit numbers c. the Logarithmic Law b. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. AMI c. can suffer slope overload d. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. In delta modulation. Compared to PCM. Manchester coding: a. provides strong timing information d. the signal does not change d. unipolar NRZ b. Code-Compression d. only over shorter distances b. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. all of the above ANS: D 25. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. "granular noise" is produced when: a. In Europe. the α Law (alpha law) d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. 8-bit numbers d. Codec stands for: a. is a biphase code b. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. none of the above c. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. the A Law ANS: B 18. transmits fewer bits per sample b. Manchester d. all of the above c. Coder-Decoder b. delta modulation: a. companding uses: a. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. 12-bit numbers b. the signal changes too rapidly c. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. the sample is too large ANS: B 22.
2 ANS: A 26. 1. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. detect errors b. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 64 kb/s d. 8 c. 1. all of the above c.a. 56 kb/s d.544 × 106 ANS: A 30. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. A typical T-1 line uses: c. 8 kb/s . all of the above c. 48 c. 1. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 4 d. 8 k c.544 Mb/s b.544 MB/s c. A T-1 cable uses: a. carry signaling ANS: C 27. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 6 b. NRZ coding d. 64 k b. In DS-1. Manchester coding b. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors b. pulse-width coding c. 56 k d. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 12 ANS: B 34. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 8 29. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 1 b. 1 b. 24 d. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. 4 d. 56 kb/s b. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 2 ANS: D c.
a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. microwave c. much better c. all of the above 36. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. twisted-pair wire b. Compared to standard PCM systems. ANS: improved better 2. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. somewhat better d. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. fiber-optic cable d. A vocoder implements compression by: a. ANS: binary . on-hook/off-hook condition b. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. ANS: digitized 4. ringing d. In analog channels. ANS: modulated 3. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. an analog signal must first be ____________________. busy signal ANS: D c. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. To send it over an analog channel.a. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. To send it over a digital channel. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. about the same b.
ANS: regenerative 7. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: Hartley's 12. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. ANS: Foldover . ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. information capacity. ANS: correct 8. ANS: Natural 15. ANS: Time 10. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ANS: limited 11. ANS: Shannon 14. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission.6. ANS: Nyquist 16. ANS: error noise 9. Ignoring noise. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. and bandwidth. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format.
____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: amplitude 19. ANS: 1 one 27. In a PCM system. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: Quantizing 21. ANS: codec 25. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: Pulse-code 20. In Europe.17. ANS: µ mu 23. ANS: 12 26. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: higher . In North America. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: Companding 22. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Aliasing 18. ANS: A 24. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
In delta modulation. In DS-1.28. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: zeros 35. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: step 31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: Granular 29. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. ANS: timing 37. ANS: DC 33. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. ANS: half 32. ANS: transition 36. ANS: slope 30. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. ANS: framing 39. . ANS: polarity 34. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: 24 38. ANS: 8000 40. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. In AMI.
A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: superframe 42. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. ANS: 5 seconds 2. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. What is the approximate dynamic range. in dB. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. From a group of twelve frames. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? .000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. ANS: sixth 43.544 × 106 41.ANS: 1.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. ANS: 2000 hertz 3.
If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.833 volt . what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.ANS: 64 kbps 7. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.388 volt? ANS: 0.
trunk lines ANS: B 7.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above c. Primary Operational Test System d. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. POTS stands for: a. Private Office Telephone System b. LATA stands for: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. A LATA is a: a. a tandem office b. Plain Old Telephone Service c. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Local Area Telephone Access d. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. Local Area Transport Access c. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. local loops b. a way of accessing a central office c. a local calling area b. DTMF stands for: a. a toll station ANS: C 8. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . Local loops terminate at: a. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. both a and b d. a central office d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. a way of accessing a tandem office d. Public Switched Telephone Network b. PSTN stands for: a. Central offices are connected by: a. an interexchange office c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Local Access and Transport Area b. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. Call blocking: a.
fiber-optic c. FITL stands for: a. step-by-step switching control c. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. when it is on hook b. 48 volts. ESS ANS: C 16. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. twisted-pair copper wire b. 20 hertz AC d. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. Framing In The Loop d. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c.ANS: D 9. 20 µA to 80 µA c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts DC c. crossbar control d. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. only when it is ringing c. Post Office Protocol b. 200 µA to 800 µA d. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 90 volts. In telephony. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. common control b. POP stands for: a. coaxial cable d. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. Power-On Protocol d. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 2 mA to 8 mA b. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. none of the above . reduce crosstalk d. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. Loading coils were used to: a. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. DC current flows through a telephone: a.
90 volts DC d. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. prevent "singing" d. PABX stands for: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. all of the above c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. 20 hertz AC 18. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. via net loss d. PDM b. voice is put on a carrier using: a. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 60 ANS: B 23. 90 volts. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. VNL stands for: a. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. 0 dBr c. eliminate reflections c. 1 mW b. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. jumbogroups d. 12 d. 6 c. voltage net loss b. In telephone system FDM. all of the above ANS: C 19. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. 48 volts DC b. PCM ANS: A 25. DSBSC d.a. SSB c. 1 pW d. prevent oscillation d. supergroups b. 24 b. voice noise level . volume net loss ANS: C 20. mastergroups ANS: D 24. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. 48 volts.
justification d. A ____________________ is a local calling area. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. Information Systems Digital Network 30. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. frame alignment c. c.26. much more expensive b. SLIC stands for: a. cancel echoes d. Allocated Digital Service Line d. it took to long to develop b. rectification ANS: C 29. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. all of the above ANS: D 31. compensation b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Access to Data Services Line . Integrated Services Data Network d. provide synchronization b. ADSL stands for: a. much faster c. In DS-1. about the same speed d. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. ISDN stands for: a. it is too slow c. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. check for errors c. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. ANS: LATA 2. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. carry signaling ANS: B 28. Compared to ISDN. Integrated Services Digital Network b.
Of the red and green 'phone wires. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. As compared to a hierarchical network. ANS: digital 7. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch.ANS: trunk 3. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. the red wire is called ____________________. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: twisted-pair 8. With 7-digit phone numbers. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. ANS: seized 14. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: green 13. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. . Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: Loading 10. ANS: blocking 6. ANS: ring 11. ANS: flat 9. ANS: tandem 4. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: tip 12. ANS: ten 5. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office.
ANS: 56 . ANS: C-message 23. ANS: DTMF 19. the modulation is usually ____________________. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. Because of "bit robbing". A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: suppressor 22. In the telephone system. In FDM telephony. ANS: guard 25. In a crosspoint switch.ANS: BORSCHT 15. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: hybrid 16. ANS: repeaters 21. In FDM telephony. ANS: large 18. ANS: conditioned 20. ANS: lines 17.
In ISDN. In ISDN.26. In ADSL. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: TE1 34. ANS: B 33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: superframe 27. ANS: stuff 28. For a certain telephone. If the loop current is 40 mA. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: in-channel 29. ANS: D 32. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. In DS-1C. ANS: packet 31. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: asymmetrical 35. ANS: common-channel 30. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
ANS: 1000 ohms 2. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. ANS: 1 dB 5. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. For a certain telephone. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. If the loop current is 40 mA.
American Standard Character-set 2 b.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. Line Feed c. In practical terms. ASCII stands for: a. FF. graphic control characters d. Data codes are also called: a. they do not have any other name d. LF stands for: a. Character codes include: a. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. Western Union d. control characters d. escape characters ANS: C 8. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. over any distance b. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. nonstandard character codes b. numerical data b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. BS. over short distances only c. character sets ANS: C 4. FIGS data c. both a and b c. binary data d. usually over long distances d. data link control characters ANS: D 6. alphanumeric characters b. parallel data transmission is sent: a. all of the above c. the Morkum Company b. none of the above c. character codes b. and CR are examples of: a. American Standard Code 2 d. Emile Baudot . Line Forward c. all of the above ANS: B 5.
the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. not synchronized at all. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. Link Feed ANS: A d. the CRC bits b. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. not a set length ANS: D 12. In synchronous transmission. In asynchronous transmission. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. the frames are: a. equal to one bit-time d. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c.b. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. equal to zero c. Link Forward 9. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. the transmitter and receiver are: a. Unaltered Received Text d. UART stands for: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. the data bits d. 128 bytes long d. the channel must be noise-free . In synchronous transmission. much longer than asynchronous frames c. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. the time between consecutive frames is: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. the clock bits c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. In asynchronous transmission. all of the above ANS: A 14. a separate clock line ANS: B 15.
put data into a temporary buffer d. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. LRC d. ARQ is used to: a. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. "bit-stuffing" b. automatic request for queue c. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. BISYNC: a. FEC d. Fixed Error Control b. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. HDLC: a. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. FEC stands for: a. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. parity c. all of the above . different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. ARQ c. Control Receiver Code b. False Error Condition c. none of the above c. Forward Error Correction d. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. Cycle Repeat Character c. automatic receiver queue d. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. ARQ ANS: D 23. all of the above c. is an IBM product b. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. automatic request for resynchronization b. Huffman codes: a. requires the use of DLE d. CRC stands for: a. is identical to SDLC d. FEC b. VRC is another name for: a. correct bit errors b.ANS: A 16. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. is an IBM product b.
The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. an ISO standard d. all of the above c. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. ANS: Baudot 3. ANS: short 2. a bit-oriented protocol b.d. Public-key encryption: a. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Run-length encoding is used to: a. compress data ANS: B 26. SDLC stands for: a. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. all of the above c. correct data d. encrypt data b. ANS: ASCII 5. HDLC is: a. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. avoids the "password problem" d. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. none of the above . allows the use of digital signatures b. ANS: FF c. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: character 4. Synchronous Data Line Character c.
ANS: UART 10. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. ANS: 01111110 17. When receiving digital data. In HDLC. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: flag 16. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. . ANS: transitions 13. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: mark binary 1 9. At the end of an asynchronous frame. In the ____________________ protocol. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ANS: data 14.6. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. ANS: efficient 12. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ANS: buffers 11. ANS: stop 8. ANS: start 7. the line will be at the ____________________ level.
DLE stands for data link ____________________. public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: password 28. ANS: escape 19. ANS: cipher 27. ANS: compression 26. . ANS: long 29. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.ANS: block 18. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: Burst 21. ANS: burst 25. ANS: decrypted 30. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. ANS: even 24. Because it is ____________________-intensive. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: ARQ 23. private-key encryption can be quite secure. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: forward 22.
If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS: 66.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1.0% .7% 6. and two stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. ANS: 97. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3.
In a circuit-switched network: a. Each computer on a network is called a: a. all of the above ANS: B 7. token ANS: C 8. a network of networks b. not really a network at all c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. The Internet is: a. not as widely used c. token-passing rings are: a. Dumb terminals are still used: a. communication is half-duplex only b. Collision Detection d. Carrier Detection b. none of the above ANS: B 6. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Most LANs: a. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. Carrier Server Master Application d. a very large CSMA/CD network d. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. none of the above . are based on Ethernet b. node d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. circuit c. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. use UTP cable d. in token-passing networks b. hub b. each channel carries only one data stream c. Collision Delay c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. CSMA stands for: a. all of the above c. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. Client-Server Multi-Access b. slower c.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.
contention d. multiple access ANS: B 12. a collision c. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. none of the above c. a central ring c. multiple access ANS: A 13. all of the above 9. none of the above ANS: D 10. data is lost . the cable overheats d. contention d.3 c. EIA 232 c. the network goes down b. token-passing b. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. the network slows down ANS: B 16. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. packets b. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. excess traffic b. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. Multistation Access Unit b. In an Ethernet-based network. MAU stands for: a. The effect of too many collisions is: a. CSMA c. tokens ANS: A 11.b. excess traffic b. collisions ANS: D 15. packets c. Ethernet d. On networks. nodes d. carriers b. users d. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. it is called: a. a collision c. a central bus d. it is called: a. more expensive ANS: D d. nodes c. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. IEEE 802. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. a node b. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a.
to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. fiber-optic cable b. Network Interface Card b. the cable carries baseband signals b. IEEE 488. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. a BNC connector c. Ethernet was invented by: a. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. 50-ohm coaxial cable . INTEL ANS: C d. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. Xerox d. Network Internal Code c. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. to increase the data rate b. RG-58U coaxial cable d.b. to increase the data rate b. NRZ encoding b. none of the above ANS: A 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. Three-Level encoding d. Manchester encoding c. CCITT ITU-E c. NIC stands for: a. IBM b. all of the above ANS: C 24. Network Interface Code d. all of the above ANS: C 23. an RJ45 connector c.1 ANS: C 18. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d.
Unicode Text Packet 27. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. UTP stands for: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. a T connector ANS: C 26. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c.b. are cheaper c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. A switch: a. an RS11 connector c. it is faster when used in large networks c. allow faster bit rates b. CAT-5 cables: a. client-server networks d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. both a and b b. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. peer-to-peer networks c. modulate the data onto a carrier b. all of the above ANS: C 28. all of the above ANS: C 31. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. A hub: a. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. none of the above ANS: B . Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. use coaxial cables c. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above ANS: D 32. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. Broadband LANs: a.
ANS: star 4. A "thin" client is: a. Record locking is used to: a. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. a PC with no disk drives b. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. all nodes are connected to a central computer. all of the above . basically. none of the above ANS: C 34. UNIX-based c.33. In a ____________________ network. WINDOWS-based d. ANS: packet c. In a ____________________-switched network. ANS: topology 6. same as a "dumb" terminal d. The Internet is a network of ____________________. ANS: Local 2. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. store records securely on a server b. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. ANS: circuit 5. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. multitasking b. ANS: networks 3. Novell certified ANS: C 35. ANS: token 7.
In CSMA/CD. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. in effect. ANS: detected 11. ANS: Contention 9. ANS: stacked 19. ANS: minimum 15. ANS: address . ANS: backbone 13. In CSMA/CD. In CSMA/CD networks. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: 100 mega 14. one big hub. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: length 16. all collisions must be ____________________. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable.8. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: collision 10. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: NIC 17.
nodes at either end of a cable could get on. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. . If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. 4. the entire network is inoperative. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. What is a NIC address. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. It still works like a token-passing ring.20. 3. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. The collision would not be detected. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. 5. send a packet. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. 2. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made.
link layer ANS: C 8.25 b. 3 b. all of the above c. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. cable layer b. Multiple Access Network . Small Network Access ANS: D 4. Metropolitan-Area Network d. Systems Network Architecture c. Manchester Access Network b. error-check layer d. 7 d. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. physical layer c. user b. Standard Network Architecture d. network d. link layer c. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. is faster than X. switched circuits ANS: A 3. real-time delivery d.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Packet switching is based on: a. does less error checking than X. Standard Network Access b. SNA stands for: a. physical layer ANS: D 7. store-and-forward b. frame layer b. frame c. link layer d. MAN stands for: a. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. Frame Relay: a. 8 c. 5 ANS: C 5. allows for variable length packets d. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. all of the above c. transport layer ANS: A 6.25 ANS: D c.
looks at the address of each packet c. TCP/IP consists of: a. 5 layers b. Universal Data Packet c. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. HTTP stands for: a. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. Internet Process b. datagrams c. User Data Packet d. IP is a: a. 7 layers ANS: A 14. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. Transmission Control Process b. IP stands for: a. operate at the data-link level d. ATM stands for: a. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. User Datagram Protocol b. TCP stands for: a. Interconnect Protocol d. an application and a process d. non-robust protocol c. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. all of the above ANS: D 11. none of the above c.9. Interconnect Procedure . High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. is essentially forever b. separates a network into "collision domains" b. UDP stands for: a. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. Automatic Test Mode 10. connection-oriented protocol b. A bridge: a. Together. connectionless protocol d. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Transfer Connection Protocol d.
high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. file transport ANS: C 19. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. Hypertext Markup Language b. Fast Transport Packet c. FTP stands for: a. dumb terminals b. SMTP stands for: a. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. Short Message Transport Protocol b. telneting b. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. HTML allows: a.b. none of the above . Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. File Test Procedure d. all of the above c. Internet Service Procedure d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. none of the above c. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. ISP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol b. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. browsers d. none of the above ANS: A 23. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. a 32-bit binary number b. all of the above c. running out of available values d. web page layout d. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. HTML stands for: a. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. FTP is used to: a. HTTP allows the use of: a. four groups of base-ten numbers c. Internet Service Protocol b.
DNS stands for: a. ANS: switched 5. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. ANS: Wide 3. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. translates words to numbers c. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. none of the above c. a "firewall" b. ANS: forward 6. Open Systems Internet d. Domain Naming System . Open Systems Interconnection b. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. a "brick wall" d. Domain Name Server b.ANS: D 26. stores all domain addresses d. ANS: Metropolitan 2. a DNS c. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. A DNS: a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. Domain Numbering System d. OSI stands for: a. ANS: leased 4. c.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. Pulse-Signal Keying b. bits d. too many bits low d. modulation index ANS: C 6. Full-Signal Keying d. intermodulation distortion b. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. bits per second c. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. amperes per second ANS: C 5. the eye is maximally open c. PSK b. FSK c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. number of possible states per symbol d. none of the above c. FSK stands for: a. I is measured in: a. M is the: a. Phase-Shift Keying c. amperes b. AFSK d. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. QAM ANS: A c. In the equation I = ktB. margin of noise b. too many bits high c. none of the above . High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the eye is maximally closed d. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. the eye is half open b. maximum number of symbols per second c. Phase-Signal Keying d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. PSK stands for: a. QAM stands for: a. Full-Shift Keying b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4.
a dibit b. Instead of a single bit. 1200 bps. amplitude and frequency c. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. For QAM. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. noise and interference b. 3π/4. 600 bps. FSK c. ANSI c. uneven phase and frequency response c. full-duplex. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a.N. and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. International Telephony Unit b. a random sequence c. 180. a training sequence d. FSK b. To reduce the need for linearity. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. half-duplex. random bits c. effects of noise on symbols d. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. 135. low SNR d. amplitude and phase angle d. 90. CCITT b. a byte c. FSK ANS: A 14. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. and 270 degrees c. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. 300 bps. full-duplex. and 4π/4 b. 4 bits d. 1200 bps. full-duplex. 2π/4. angles of π/4. ANS: B 16. the U. 225. angles of 45. For QAM. Gaussian bits b. International Telecommunications Union d. a QPSK symbol contains: a.9. frequency and phase angle b. IEEE d. FSK d. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. angles of 0. International Telecommunications Units c. all of the above . The ITU is under the auspices of: a.
EIA-232D ANS: B 23. a DTR b. none of the above c. the ISO . 3 d. a DTE c.42 bis are both: a. 5 b. In RS-232. In RS-232. 1 c. both a and b d. RS-232C b. The V.90 standard is issued by: a. RTS/CTS handshake b. a personal computer would be: a. both a and b d. MNP4. ANSI-232C c. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. 5 b. a DCE d. flow control is done using: a. a DCE d. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. both a and b d. the TIA ANS: C 19. In RS-232. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. a DTE c. 3 d. none of the above c. a DSR ANS: D 25. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. The official name for RS-232C is: a. the EIA b. data-compression schemes b. ISO-232C/D d. a DTR b. MNP3. a DSR ANS: C 24. a modem would be: a. signal ground is pin: a.ANS: C 18. and MNP10 are all: a. the ITU d. MNP5 and V. MNP2. 1 c. 7 c. none of the above c. signal ground is pin: a. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. data-compression schemes b. 7 ANS: C 26.
and signal ground . TD and RD b. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. RD. Hybrid Fiber Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. Analog DSL d. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. Any DSL scheme c. In a CATV system. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. and signal ground d. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. TD and RD ANS: C 29. +12 volts d. none of the above c. DSL stands for: a. RTS and CTS d. XON and XOFF b. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. CMTS stands for: a. HFC stands for: a. Data Signal Line b. TD. Double-Speed Loop c. TD.ANS: D 27. Hardware flow control uses: a. TD and RD ANS: A 30. DSR and DCD c. Head Frequency Control b. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. TD. RTS. Asynchronous DSL b. all of the above ANS: D 31. DSR. CTS. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. All DSL c. RTS and CTS d. ADSL d. RD. +15 volts c. In a CATV system. ADSL Lite b. ADSL stands for: a. DSR and DCD c. +9 volts b. RD. XON and XOFF b. Digital Subscriber Line d. Software flow control uses: a. and signal ground ANS: B 28.
The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. ANS: four 9. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: Delta 10. ANS: Data 5. ANS: CTS 3. ANS: Quadrature 6. RTS means Request To ____________________. ANS: constellation 11. ANS: dibit 8. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. . The response to RTS is ____________________. ANS: Telecommunications 12. ANS: baud 7. In QAM modems. ANS: Keying 4. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: Send 2.
ANS: hardware 18. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: tree 22. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. In RS-232. ANS: 54k 15. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: Equalization 14.ANS: Trellis 13. ANS: 20k 16. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ____________________ flow control is preferred. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. In a CATV system using cable modems. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: 3 19. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ANS: CMTS 23. ANS: null 20. . the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps.
____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. If half the modems are active at any given time. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. ANS: lite 26. A DMT system uses 4. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________.ANS: Ranging 24. ANS: ADSL 25. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: 4000 2. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. ANS: DMT 27.
every other frame c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. all the signals come from the same source b. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. 1. every sixth frame d.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. 64 channels c. Tone Division Multiple Access d. Code-Division Multiple Access b. the signals come from different sources c. CDMA stands for: a. signaling bit d. In DS-1. T-bit ANS: D 8. 256 kbps d. 64 kbps c. 1. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. every frame b. none of the above . TDMA stands for: a. timing bit b.536 Mbps b. the bandwidth of each signal b. TDM is used in RF communications d. Besides data bits. none of the above c. 24 channels ANS: B 6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. framing bit c. A DS-1 signal contains: a. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. 32 channels d. every twelfth frame c. Time Domain Multiple Access b. the length of the channel d. When calculating the maximum number of users. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. 12 channels b. the type of media used c. all of the above ANS: C 5.
all of the above c. a CDMA receiver c. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. spreading gain d. a narrowband receiver c. much less bandwidth b. multiplexer b. RF gain b. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a.ANS: C 9. compared to standard RF systems. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. a wideband receiver d. line switching b. time switching c. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. A digital space switch is a: a. signal switching b. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. computer speed ANS: C 16. crosspoint switch . Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. For a given data rate. direct-sequence method d. space switching d. the digital data bit rate c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. all of the above c. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. computerized Strowger switch d. direct-sequence method d. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. about the same bandwidth c. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. direct-sequence systems. bandwidth of original baseband d. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. TDM switch ANS: D 12. a direct-conversion receiver b. To calculate processing gain. use: a. space switching d. time switching c. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. the chip size ANS: B 17. much more bandwidth d. the S/N ratio b. "Processing gain" is another term for: a.
Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: part 5. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. a direct-conversion receiver b. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. In FDM.ANS: A 18. CDMA: a. ANS: time 7. a narrowband receiver c. orthogonal PN sequences c. ANS: frequency . ANS: share 2. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. For optimal performance. CDMA requires the use of: a. ANS: all 6. a wideband receiver d. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. Using CDMA on a radio channel. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. true-random PN sequences b. TDMA. ANS: all 4. cannot be used on an RF channel d. In TDM. ANS: CDMA 3. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. and ____________________.
Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. ANS: AMI 10. . Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. ANS: 1. ANS: pseudo 18. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.8. ANS: Rayleigh 17. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: 24 9. ANS: difficult 20. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. ANS: 8 13. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: hopping 19. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. ANS: space 15. ANS: time 16. ANS: 193 11. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: superframe 14.544 Meg 12.
Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. So the more bandwidth available. by definition. 5. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. the higher the possible bit rate. ANS: code 24. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. ANS: chips 22. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. ANS: ten 23. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. 4. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. 2. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.ANS: difficult 21. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal.
Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. have no frequencies in common. f12.. and so forth.. .. If the two sets of frequencies. f13. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21.. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.).ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. f13. f22. f23. (f11. . What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. . At some point in time.) and (f21. and so forth. f12. as it is in spread-spectrum. f23. f22. 6. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11.
the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. As frequency increases. lumped c. the skin effect b. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. I2R loss c. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. a coaxial cable b. changes periodically ANS: A 6. decreases d. distributed d. Transmission Delay Ratio c. none of the above . When analyzing a transmission line. TDR stands for: a. increases c. stays the same b. all of the above c. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. Shorted Wave Radiation b. an open-wire-line cable d. ideal elements ANS: B 5. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. equal reactances b. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. increases c. decreases d. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. Shorted Wire Region d. the Ohmic effect d. Time-Domain Response d. Total Distance of Reflection b. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. the resistance of a wire: a. As frequency increases. stays the same b. SWR stands for: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7.
as large as possible d. increases with voltage d. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. there is no optimum value c. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. lower than Z0 c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. loss of power to load c. higher voltage peaks on cable d. zero b. the load on a cable should be: a. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. the inductance per foot b. increases with length b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. all of the above c. one ANS: B 16. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. The optimum value for SWR is: a. all of the above ANS: B 12. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. For best matching. none of the above . the dielectric constant d. standing waves b. the wire resistance c. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. equal to Z0 b.ANS: D 9. would reflect as a positive pulse b.
vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. variable SWR b. the voltage c. none of the above ANS: C 25. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. A TDR is commonly used to: a. would be more d. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. find the position of a defect in a cable c. directly c. dividing it by 2π d. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. transmission line losses c. is zero d. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. Compared to a 300-ohm line. none of the above . the characteristic impedance b. is infinite c. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. none of the above ANS: D 24. by using a "balun" b. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. On a Smith Chart. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. the current d. one d. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. zero c. assuming it to be zero c. by using a filter d. the impedance b. would be the same b. multiplying it by 2π b.ANS: D 17. transmission line impedances b. would be less c. optimum length of a transmission line d. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. VSWR stands for: a. is the characteristic impedance b. voltage SWR d.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
2 9.7. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5 8. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 . What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.5.
Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. perpendicular to each other c. all of the above . Hertz d. all of the above ANS: A 4. light ANS: D 6. Hertz d. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. Maxwell b. In free space. radio waves b. none of the above ANS: C 7. high power levels c. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. high-power microwave transmitters b. True Electromagnetic d. both a and b b. TEM stands for: a. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. reuse of frequencies b. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. Armstrong c. Marconi ANS: B 3. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Marconi ANS: C 2. Transverse Electromagnetic b. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. the miniature cell-site d. 3 × 106 meters per second c. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. 300 × 10 meters per second d. none of the above c. Maxwell b. gamma waves d. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. all of the above ANS: C 5. the microprocessor chip c. Armstrong c. high antennas d.
all of the above ANS: D 10. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. when using horizontally polarized waves c. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. refraction c. EIRP stands for: a. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. none of the above . 1 c. vertical c. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. an isotropic radiator b. a flat body of water c. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. vertical c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. circular b. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. a ground-wave antenna d. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. at microwave frequencies d. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. all of the above ANS: D 11.9. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. circular b. horizontal d. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. reflection c. 3 b. Ground waves are most effective: a. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. horizontal d. many ANS: B 12. below about 2 MHz b. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. 2 d.
send a message multiple times over a channel b. Sky waves: a. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. diffraction 18. the cell area is increased c.b. A "repeater" is used to: a. in the "skip" zone . reflected off the ionosphere c. in the "silent" zone d. multipath distortion d. frequency diversity b. line-of-sight b. Space waves are: a. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. the radio horizon d. fading b. fading c. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. diffraction ANS: C 23. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. cancellation due to reflection c. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. diffusion ANS: D d. close to the transmitter b. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. diffraction d. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. extend the range of a radio communications system d. the reuse of frequencies c. are same as space waves d. are line-of-sight b. high power b. repeaters ANS: D 25. the power levels are increased c. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. same as sky waves d.
ANS: photons 6. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ANS: 300 × 106 5. ANS: Maxwell 2. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. The troposphere is the: a. a "handoff" process occurs c. c. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . ANS: Hertz 3. ANS: transverse 4. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. used for radio telephony b. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. none of the above ANS: B 28. a "funnel" receiver c. both cells will handle the call b. a "rake" receiver d. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. Unlike sound or water waves. not possible c.b. the cell area is split ANS: B d. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. the number of channels is reduced 26. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. To receive several data streams at once. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. multiple receivers b. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. highest layer of the atmosphere b. a "sectoring" process occurs d. also called "ducting" d.
ANS: circular 15. ANS: perpendicular 13. ANS: plane 11.ANS: medium 7. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: perpendicular 14. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. ANS: isotropic 9. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. ANS: electric 12. ANS: specular . a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: decrease 17. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. At a far distance from the source. ANS: sphere 10. ANS: 3 × 106 8. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. ANS: gain 16. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter.
ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: Refraction 19. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface.18. ANS: reflected 26. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: skip 24. each covering a third of the cell area. ANS: Sectoring 29. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. to reduce interference. ANS: microprocessor . ANS: low 27. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ANS: Space 21. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. ANS: Ground 22. ANS: multipath 25. ANS: Sky 23. ANS: reuse 28. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . If the car is traveling 36 km/hour. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. approximately. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. what is the power density 10.9 km 5. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.SHORT ANSWER 1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function.
from front to back c. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. in two directions d. the reflected signal d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. all of the above ANS: A 2. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. in one direction c. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. one wavelength c. the SWR b. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. 0 dB c. radiation resistance of the antenna b. 10 dB b. infinite ANS: A 8. from +90° to –90° b. directivity c. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. in all directions b. the radiated signal c. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. resonance ANS: A 7. SWR along the feed cable d. a Yagi antenna d.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. between the minor side-lobes c. selectivity d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. none of the above . Measured on the ground. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. 3 dB d. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. between half-power points d. a Marconi antenna b. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. active antenna b. one half-wavelength d.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. ANS: effective 15. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. ANS: ground 22. ANS: one 24. ANS: gain 16. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ANS: parasitic 25. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength.14. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: horizontal 18. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. ANS: wider greater more 19. . ANS: vertical 20. ANS: balun 17.
ANS: collimated 29. If an LPDA had five elements. If an antenna has 10. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. ANS: horn 30. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere .ANS: log-periodic 26. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. ANS: focus 28.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. ANS: five 27.
What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts . A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6.
with an electric field probe d. both b and c ANS: D 8. 1 GHz d. none of the above ANS: A 4. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. 100 MHz c. TM 01 ANS: C 6. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. TE 01 b. through a hole in the waveguide b. with a magnetic field probe c.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. depends on the frequency it carries c. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. the shape of the waveguide c. TE 10 a. 10 GHz b. TE 11 d. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. TE 01 c. the power level of the signal d. TM10 ANS: C 5. The UHF range is: a. same as the microwave range . below the microwave range b. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. the point of signal injection b. is fixed b. of its circular symmetry d. all of the above c. TM11 b. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. it is dominant c. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. TM 01 d. it is the only mode possible b. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. above the microwave range d.
tuned circuit b. A "circulator" is a device that: a. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. a "magic" TEE d. their directivity b. couple sections of waveguide b. TWT stands for: a. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. all of the above ANS: D 10. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. gallium assembly ANS: A c. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. Transverse Wave Transmission b. none of the above . rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. antenna d. separates signals among various ports d. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. their coupling specification d. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. gallium arsenide b. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. Traveling-Wave Tube d.ANS: D 9. couple components on a circuit board d. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. an H-plane TEE b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. none of the above c. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. all of the above c. GaAs stands for: a. gallium astenite d. their insertion loss c. none of the above c. An "isolator" is a device that: a. separates signals among various ports d. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12.
implied power at transmission terminal d. all of the above c. radio ranging b. none of the above c. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a.17. RADAR stands for: a. radio detection and ranging d. continuous transmission ANS: D c. impact avalanche and transit time b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. TWT c. a magnetic field ANS: B c. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. IMPATT stands for: a. TWT c. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. YIG stands for: a. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. an electric field b. the Doppler effect d. YIG ANS: B 23. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. none of the above c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. magnetron b. all of the above ANS: A 24. YIG ANS: A 22. YIG ANS: C 21. klystron d. TWT c. slots c. klystron d. remote detection and ranging . Yagis d. pulsed transmission b. magnetron b. magnetron b. an "exciter" signal 20. klystron d. RADAR uses: a. mechanical pressure d. Fresnel lenses b. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18.
In a waveguide. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. In a waveguide. In a circular waveguide. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. ANS: slower 9. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. ANS: electric 5. increases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period b. ANS: TM01 7. increases with increasing pulse duration c. In a waveguide. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: dominant 4. ANS: zero 3. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: high 8. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. In TE10 mode. ANS: two 6.26. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. In TE20 mode. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. none of the above ANS: B 27. ANS: Dispersion 2. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. . ANS: faster 10.
.ANS: decreases 11. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. ANS: cavity 14. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: linear 17. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. ANS: smaller 20. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. ANS: high 13. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: wave 16. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: patch 19. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: slot 18.
Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.ANS: 3 GHz 2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 15 km 7. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. ANS: 14. ANS: 300 meters . Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.8 6. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses.
noise level d. jitter b. Line-Of-Sight d. 200 watts b. 99. all of the above ANS: B 6. LOS stands for: a. In analog microwave systems. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. FM b. jitter b. all of the above ANS: C 7. section c. hop d. additional repeaters increase the: a. all of the above . QAM d. 99. reliability c.9% b. 2 watts c. skip b. Loss Of Skip b. SSB ANS: D 3. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. additional repeaters increase the: a. excessive noise d. Microwave systems use: a. In digital microwave systems. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Too much antenna gain causes: a. jitter c. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. jump ANS: B 2. noise level d. 20 watts d. reliability c.99% ANS: D 4. none of the above ANS: A 5. Line-Of-Signal c. 99% d. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. a very narrow microwave beam b. 90% c.
IF type b. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. diversity c. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. high level of ERP c. always b. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. MMDS stands for: a. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. Fading is caused by: a. above 10 GHz d. it requires less power b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. low level of transmitted power b. 60% of the Faraday zone c. multipath reception b. power d. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. all of the above c. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12.9. below 10 GHz c. all of the above . an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. none of the above ANS: A 11. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. all of the above ANS: B 17. high-gain antennas b. ducting d. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. less bandwidth is required c. baseband type ANS: D 16. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. regenerative type d. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. Microwave repeaters can be: a.
One microwave link is called a ____________________. ANS: studio 3. multidirectional d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. bidirectional b. ANS: fading c. ANS: noise density 7.b. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. none of the above . A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. LMDS stands for: a. In digital microwave systems. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. ANS: temperature 6. ANS: jitter 5. ANS: hop 2. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. LMDS is: a. ANS: year 4. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. In microwave systems. Local Microwave Distribution System b.
Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km.4 meters 3. but ____________________ is bidirectional. ANS: diversity 10. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: Repeaters 12.8. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. ANS: space 9. ANS: ten 11. ANS: noise 14. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. ANS: baseband 13. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. MMDS is unidirectional. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. approximately. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . what would it be.
The noise power is –100 dBm.4 dBm 4. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB . Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. ANS: 201 K 5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K.ANS: –42.
Red-Green Burst b. 30 d. 25 c. contrast c. 25 c. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. chroma d. Luminance refers to: a. National Television Systems Committee c. Red-Green-Blue . 1024 b. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 625 : 525 c. NTSC stands for: a. 30 d. 3 : 4 b. 625 d. FCC c. 1250 ANS: A 5. 525 c. brightness b. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. 50 b. Red-Green Bandwidth d. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. National Television Systems Council d. raster c. IRE d. EIA b. 60 ANS: B 6. 525 : 625 d. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. RGB stands for: a. National Television Systems Commission b.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 50 b. IEEE ANS: C 3. 60 ANS: D 7.
peak white ANS: B 11. NTSC units . pixel d. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. quadrature phase color component b. in-phase color component.ANS: A 9. white c. is greater than vertical resolution b. In a color TV receiver. quadrature phase color component c. composite video signal. all of the above c. equalize the DC level d. foot-candles b. blacker than black ANS: D 13. whiter than white b. composite color signal. The maximum luminance level is called: a. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. horizontal resolution: a. whiter than white b. pic ANS: C 16. white c. dot b. whiter than white c. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. luminance signal. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. IRE units d. in-phase video component. black d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. none of the above c. lumins ANS: C 10. Luminance is measured in: a. quadrature video color component d. maintain horizontal sync b. black d. Y I Q refers to: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. in-phase color component. When measured in lines. blacker than black ANS: B 12. is less than vertical resolution d. The smallest picture element is called a: a. max white b. all white d.
vestigial sideband AM d. suppressed-carrier AM b. about the same c. all of the above ANS: D 22. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. sync amplitude pulse d.17. SAP stands for: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. the isolation transformer c. Compared to the luminance signal. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: B 19. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. sync audio pulse . detect the presence of a color video signal b. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. FM ANS: C 21. much less b. FM ANS: D 20. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. much lower b. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. vestigial sideband AM d. much greater c. SSB c. separate audio program b. SSB c. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. Compared to a monochrome CRT. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. the flyback transformer b. the yoke ANS: C 24. SSB c. the video transformer d. much higher d. about the same d. suppressed-carrier AM b. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a.
ANS: composite 6. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. ANS: aspect 7. AFPC stands for: a. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. ANS: scanning 4. none of the above . allowed full picture chroma b. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. Brightness information is called ____________________. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. ANS: NTSC 3. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. During the horizontal blanking interval. automatic frequency and picture control d. ANS: retraces 5. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. ANS: Aquadag 2. ANS: porch c. ANS: luma luminance 8. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal.d. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. Color information is called ____________________. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1.
The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: 20 to 30 21. ANS: phosphor 22. ANS: 525 16. ANS: ultor 20. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. ANS: pixels 15. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 3. ANS: position 11. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. ANS: 62.10. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 10 13. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. not including blanking. ANS: green 17. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.58 18.3 14. . ANS: separate 19.5 12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: 1.
Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: saturation 29. ANS: phase 30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: comb 24. ANS: convergence . ANS: purity 31. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.ANS: flyback 23. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. Color intensity is called ____________________. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: killer 25. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: dBmV 26. ANS: vectorscope 28. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: head 27. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal.
5 to 25 watts c. declination and elevation b. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7.578 km c. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. apogee and perigee c. is zero (freefall) c. 35. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. plate ANS: C 4.780 km d. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. is constant b. perigee and apogee d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. respectively. downlink d. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. transponders c. 500 to 2500 watts b. 103 watts 2 b. solar cells b.800 km b. 104 watts ANS: C 8. azimuth and elevation c. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. 3. azimuth and declination d.: a. 50 to 250 watts d.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. earth station c. batteries d. footprint b. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 357. uplink and downlink b. 101 watts c. 10 watts d. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. all of the above .
low-noise array c. VSAT stands for: a. low-noise amplitude d. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. power-down b. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. video satellite b. orbital adjustments d. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. low power to a small antenna d. LNA stands for: a. transmit delay minimum aperture c. TDMA stands for: a. low power to a large antenna b. television repeater only ANS: A 14. ring d. television receive only b. mesh c. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. star b.ANS: A 9. direct-broadcast system d. low north angle ANS: A 12. repeater c. On the uplink from a terminal. a VSAT system uses: a. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. very small aperture terminal c. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. none of the above . backdown c. backoff d. very small antenna terminal d. TVRO stands for: a. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. low-noise amplifier b. antenna maintenance b. television remote origin d. decibels of signal b. high power to a small antenna c. time-division multiple access d. DBS stands for: a. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. none of the above c. direct-broadcast satellite c. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Manual Identification Number b. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Personal Communications Service b. Numerical Access Mode b. none of the above c. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. Radio Common Carrier b. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. PCS stands for: a. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Electronic Serial Number b. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. NAM stands for: a. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Regional Cellular Carrier d. MIN stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center b. Personal Cell phone Service d. AMPS stand for: a. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. none of the above c. Emission Strength Number d. Minimum In-band Noise c. MTSO stands for: a. Maximum In-band Noise d. Portable Communications Systems c. American Mobile Phone System b. Minimum Signal Carrier c. ESN stands for: a. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. MSC stands for: a. Number Assignment Module c. RCC stands for: a. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Number Access Module d.
Direct Channel Code . FSK c. In an AMPS system. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. SAT stands for: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. The CMAC is used to: a. none of the above c. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. CMAC stands for: a. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. maximum power level of a cell phone c. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. DCC stands for: a. Central Mobile Access Control d. System Identification Number d. set the access code of the cell phone c. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Digital Communications Carrier d. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. SID stands for: a. signal classification (analog or digital) d. Signal Class Mark d. Station Antenna Tower b. base-station class ANS: D 11. Supervisory Access Tone d. Service Class Mark b. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. SCM stands for: a. SCM identifies the: a. recognize an AMPS system c.9. code number of a cell phone b. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. AM c. Serial-Code Mode c. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. voice is sent using: a. Digital Color Code b. control access to the cell site b. set its transmitted power level d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a.
Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. none of the above c. number of blocked calls c. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c.b. 2 km b. control-channel signals are sent using: a. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. Code-Division Packet Data b. Phone traffic is measured in: a. FSK b. BSC c.5 km ANS: D 23. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. MTSO d. d. increase the ERP b. BSC stands for: a. decrease the number of cells d. 0. CDMA 18. increase the number of cells c. Basic Service Code . Base Station Controller b. In an AMPS system. Coded Digital Packet Data d. c. AM c. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. air interface ANS: D 22. number of users d. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. less than 600 mW. CDMA ANS: C 19. FM d. RF interface b. 4 watts ANS: B 20. CDPD stands for: a. calls b. Basic Service Contract d. between 1 and 2 watts b. as small as possible d. FM ANS: B d. erlangs ANS: B 24. less than 600 µW. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c.
____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. . For security. ANS: 0. ANS: reuse 4. ANS: attenuation 12. ANS: land station 11. ANS: AMPS 3. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ANS: 600 mW 9. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: I one 8. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. ANS: handoff 5. ANS: III three 10. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. A portable. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. handoffs will occur too frequently. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. ANS: 800 2.5 6. ANS: three 7.1. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________.
If a 28.ANS: public 13.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. ANS: MTSO 14. ANS: dropped 17.6 3. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. ANS: erlangs 16. ANS: picocells 20. 2. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. What is the traffic in erlangs? . ANS: traffic 15. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: microcell 19. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. 2. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. ANS: splitting 18. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. Compared with AMPS. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: 1.
.ANS: 30 4. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked. the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases.
Asia b. Bell Labs d. all of the above c. many ANS: B 7. from the base to the mobile b. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. AMPS was designed for: a. first-generation b. distributed d. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. from mobile to mobile d. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. 2 c. North America d. Qualcomm c. all of the above c. 900 MHz d. digital-generation . 1. 4 b. 3 d. PCS cell sites are: a. Compared to AMPS. smaller ANS: B 5. bigger b. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. AT&T b. higher-power c. POTS b. use built into an automobile d. same as the uplink c. third-generation d. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. voice ANS: D 6. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. 800 MHz c. Lucent ANS: D 8. second-generation ANS: B 2.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. CDMA technology was invented by: a. GSM is used in: a. Europe ANS: D c.9 GHz b.
TDMA ANS: C 17. Other things being equal. Short Inbound Message b. CDMA d. spread-spectrum d. all of the above c. TDMA only b. none of the above 11. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. less than in a TDMA phone c. Subscriber ID Module d. no better than in an AMPS phone d. frequency hopping b. IS-95 uses: a. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. CDMA d. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. CDMA d. no PCS system c. GSM uses: a. In GSM. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a.9. voice channels ANS: A 10. SIM stands for: a. AMPS uses: a. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. all of the above . voice channels are called: a. traffic channels b. IS-136 uses: a. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. frequency hopping b. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. CDMA b. TDMA ANS: D c. talking channels c. GSM only d. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. bearer channels d. all of the above c. In GSM. Subscriber ID Method c. greater than in a TDMA phone b. frequency hopping b. IMSI stands for: a. TDMA c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d.
ANS: GSM 6. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: Personal 2. rotating d. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. In North America. unique ANS: D 20. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. ANS: smaller 5. Internet access d. faster data rates c. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19.ANS: B 18. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. In CDMA: a. ANS: 1900 4. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. orthogonal . wider roaming area b. common b. all frequencies are used in all cells b. Compared to AMPS. ANS: second 3.
RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: Universal . ANS: all 11. ANS: Mobile 19. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. Unlike AMPS. ANS: Frequency 13. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. ANS: soft 9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: Packet 18. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. ANS: frequency hopping 8. Unlike other systems. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: closed 17.7. ANS: less 14. ANS: 50 16. ANS: Walsh 10. ANS: random 12. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. ANS: variable 15.
6. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. 8. 5. 4. 2.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. it never goes to zero. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. With offset QPSK. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. To demodulate. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. ANS: Wireless 21. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. Why was PCS assigned to 1. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. 7. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. 3.20. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. and what causes it? . UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications.
This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. .
each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. both the VHF and UHF bands d.10 c. the UHF band. Industrial. ISM stands for: a. POCSAG stands for: a. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. Scientific. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. Industrial. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. the UHF band only c. 802. 802. Pagers use: a. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. the VHF band.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. transmitters use relatively high power d. and Medical .12 c. the VHF band only b. In a one-way pager system: a. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. all of the above ANS: D 5. A typical pager system does not: a. Scientific. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. and Messaging d. require error detection d. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. all of the above c. require "handoffs" b. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. CAPCODE is: a. IEEE Standard Message b.
frequency hopping ANS: B 12. scatternet c. Total Distance Delay c. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. infrared band ANS: C 9. Time-Division Duplex b. multinet ANS: D 16. ISM band d. UHF band ANS: C 13. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a.11 ANS: B d. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. 802. VHF band b. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. all of the above c. TDD stands for: a. 2 to 8 nodes d. 2 nodes b.b. infrared band c. CDMA b. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. CSMA/CA c. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. TDD net d.13 8. Bluetooth uses the: a. Bluetooth uses: a. Time Delay Difference d. 802. BSS stands for: a. CDMA b. CSMA/CD d. ISM band b. 10 cm to 1 meter c. QPSK d. Basic Service Set b. 10 cm to 100 meters c. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. micronet b. all of the above ANS: A 10. Bluetooth Service System d. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. 2 to 16 nodes c. VHF band c. UHF band d. none of the above .
Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. all of the above 20. ANS: capcode 2.b. ANS: Post 4. 10 meters ANS: A 19. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. cannot penetrate walls b. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. 1 meter c. ANS: 802. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. several hundred meters b.11 6. . Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. 1 foot d. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. several thousand meters. ANS: TDMA 3. within 10 feet c. Infrared networks: a. 1 meter b. can use reflected infrared beams d. Infrared Data Association b. ANS: 10 5. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. several meters d. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. 10 feet c. IRDA stands for: a.
A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: 1 meter . ANS: piconets 10. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________.ANS: 1 watt 7. ANS: piconet 9. ANS: ISM 8. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band.
cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. waveguide dispersion d. in an explosive environment b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. glass b. all of the above . the same c. less b. all of the above c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. none of the above c. all of the above c. greater d. 0.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. intersymbol interference d. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. dispersion ANS: A 7. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. plastic ANS: A 4. carry current b. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. 4 db per km d. modal dispersion b. zero loss ANS: C 8. none of the above ANS: B 5. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d.4 dB per km b. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. loss b. generate EMI d. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. Compared to the core. Scattering causes: a.02 dB c. 1 dB c. 40 dB per km c. 0. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. both a and b d.
0. Avalanche Photo Detector d.2 db ANS: A d. ANS: reflection c. In the core. responsivity is measured in: a. 0. 3 dB 9. mA per joule b. zero-point current d.b. baseline current c. an erg b. Advanced Photo Detector c. amps per watt c. For a light detector. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. all of the above ANS: D 11. LASER stands for: a. The quantum of light is called: a. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.2 db d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. SMA b. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. APD stands for: a. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1.02 dB c. dark current b. SC d. Avalanche Photodiode b. ST c. E-H current ANS: C 15. 1 dB b. In a PIN diode. 0. an e-v ANS: C 12. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. a photon d. 3 dB ANS: B 10. a phonon . µW per amp d. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d.
ANS: intramodal 8. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: loose-tube 14. ANS: linewidth 11. ANS: critical 4. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. With optical fiber. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: sine 6. In multimode fiber. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. ANS: internal 7. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ANS: infrared 9. ANS: time 12. For laser diodes. ANS: graded 10. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion.2. ANS: energy 5. . ANS: Intersymbol 13. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance.
you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. ANS: PIN 20. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: photon 19. ANS: single 17. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. ANS: pigtail 16. For safety. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. ANS: look . ANS: laser 18.ANS: tight-buffer 15.
Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. SDH b.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Frequency Input to The Loop d. type of optical network c. type of pulse d. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. DWDM stands for: a. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. Fiber In The Loop b. SONET stands for: a. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. gain margin c. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. bit stuffing c. FITL stands for: a. none of the above c. A Soliton is a: a. Synchronous Optical Network d. type of particle ANS: C 7. excess gain c. WDM ANS: A 8. defect in the glass b. FDDI stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. bit-synch d.
c. Optical Carrier level one b. ANS: Curb 2. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. In SONET. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. not possible c. OC-1 stands for: a. FDDI c. overdrive 9. all of the above ANS: D 13. Synchronous Transmission System c. In SONET. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. STS stands for: a. experimental ANS: B 14. Optical Channel one d. gigabit Ethernet b. OTDR stands for: a. FTTC d. system margin ANS: B d. 10 km ANS: C 10. FITL b. Typically.b. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. 100 km b. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. high-speed Ethernet d. common b. Optical Time-Division Relay c. Synchronous Transport Signal b. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. FDDI c. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. Optical Cable type 1 . obsolete d. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. 1000 miles c. 100 miles d. Optical Time-Delay Response b.
ANS: Distributed 7. ANS: opposite . SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: Synchronous 6. ANS: WDM 10.84 11. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. ANS: 51. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. ANS: Wavelength 5. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: Hierarchy 4. ANS: erbium 8. ANS: pointer 13. ANS: pump 9. ANS: token 14. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.ANS: Loop 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. ANS: stuffing 12.
ANS: transport 25. ANS: overhead 19. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: 1 24. ANS: 4 23. ANS: multi 17. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 774 21. ANS: 100 M 18. ANS: 810 20. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: 9 22. ANS: node 16.15. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. In SONET. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.
1 MHz 2.6 nanoseconds . receiver. ANS: 86. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter.
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