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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
frequency. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. ANS: greater larger wider 8. The part. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude. ANS: bandwidth 7. or parts. ANS: zero 6. its amplitude c. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. The more information per second you send. ANS: base 4. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. frequency. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. ANS: FDM 9. ANS: TDM 10.25. ANS: channel 5. In ____________________. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. . In ____________________. ANS: 1901 3. its amplitude. and direction b. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: 1863 2. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________.
Channel. Transmitter. Mathematically. ANS: Fourier 17. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. . a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. ANS: wavelength 14. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. Name five types of internal noise. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. In free space. ANS: 300 million 15. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: 30 12. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. ANS: 300 13. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. For satellite communications. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: Source. Destination 2. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. ANS: solar 19. Receiver. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem.ANS: very high 11.
5 9. transit-time 3. both in dB and as a ratio. both across the same 100-ohm load. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10.ANS: Thermal. the output of which is a noise current. 1/f. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. 4. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Likewise. ANS: 20 dB. Find NF.4 10. Calculate the total noise voltage. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Likewise. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. ANS: 5. Partition. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. . ANS: 1. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. Find its noise figure. Shot. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. 5. NF = 100 8. Find the total NF for the pair. ANS: 50 µV 6. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.
The "Miller Effect" can: a. "multiply" the Q d. both a and b d. and resistance d. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. a simple form of bandpass filter b. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. all of the above c. reduce the Miller effect c. base-to-collector capacitance c. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. neutralize amplifiers d. have no effect on Q c. A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. the Miller Effect is due to: a. Miller time ANS: B 2. none of the above c. A resonant circuit is: a. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. inductance. charge time b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. transit time d. base time c. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. base-to-emitter capacitance d. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. capacitance and resistance only b. In a BJT. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. using a common-emitter amplifier b. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. reactance only . it cannot be avoided c. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. inductance of collector lead b. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3.
loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. transformer coupling d. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. a tapped inductor b. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. an RC time constant d. but at just one frequency d. a signal containing harmonics d. an RC time constant d. both a and b. none of the above ANS: C 13. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. a piezoelectric crystal . a linear amplifier c. a piezoelectric crystal c. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. decoupling it d.9. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. In RF amplifiers. direct coupling b. the Bode criteria b. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. only built with FETs c. impedance matching is usually done with: a. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a tapped inductor b. it requires: a. a nonlinear circuit b. RC coupling c. The Clapp oscillator is: a. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. the Hartley criteria d. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c.
used in tuner circuits d. "VFO" stands for: a. contains the input frequencies c. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. does not contain the input frequencies d.17. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. are fed to a mixer. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. used for a precise frequency b. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. At UHF frequencies and above. In a balanced mixer. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. the output: a. the output: a. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. Generally. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. all of the above 18. a diode ANS: D c. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". A varactor is: a. none of the above ANS: A 20. c. ANS: short 2. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. all of the above ANS: D 19. If two signals. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d.
When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: ground-plane 4. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.g. In high-frequency RF circuits. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: neutralization 12. collector current). a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: decoupling 7.ANS: distributed 3. ANS: series. ANS: shielding 5. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. parallel . ANS: capacitive 13. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: components 6. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: Q 9. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. Electrically. ANS: tuned circuit 11. it is called a ____________________. ANS: 10 10. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: bypass 8. In a class C RF amplifier.
a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. V2 is a 5MHz signal. V1 and V2. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. To produce sum and difference frequencies.05% 7.14.4 µH 2. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. Two sinusoidal signals. At some bias point. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. 5. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. ANS: linear 15. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. 0. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0.1 4. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz .
Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .8.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.
m = Emax / Emin d. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. the amplitude signal d. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. Angle Modulation d. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. is: a. m = ωa / ωc c. none of the above c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. the total sideband power is: a. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. equal to the carrier power c. both a and b d. then the modulation index. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). At 100% modulation. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). splatter ANS: C 6. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. is: a. it will produce the frequencies: a. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7.414 × carrier power c. none of the above c. the baseband signal b. Overmodulation causes: a. m. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. m. 1. The modulation index. AM stands for: a. none of the above ANS: A 8. twice the carrier power d. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. m = Emin / Emax c. m = Va / Vc d. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. Audio Modulation b. distortion b. Antenna Modulation . half the carrier power b. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c.
005 MHz b. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. you would expect: a. sideband-carrier d. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. 250 watts b. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. none of the above . If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. is more efficient b. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. requires too much power d. Peak Envelope Product d. 1. AM is susceptible to noise c. SSB AM: a. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. 1000 watts c. 0 watts ANS: D 17. all of the above ANS: C 13. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. the received RF signal to increase d. both a and b d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. As compared to plain AM. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. none of the above c. none of the above ANS: B 10. PEP stands for: a. 5 kHz c. requires less bandwidth d. Peak Envelope Power b.ANS: C 9. all of the above ANS: D 14. none of the above c. 10 kHz d. single-carrier b. 500 watts d. requires too much bandwidth c. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. the time-domain signal b.
the receiver must: a. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. The total modulation index is: a. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. ANS: the same 6. all of the above ANS: C 18. ANS: simple 2. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b.b. the information in the LSB is ____________________. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. the power in the LSB is ____________________. video d. all of the above ANS: D 19. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. audio c. be set to USB mode c. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. both a and b b. ANS: inefficient 3. In AM. ANS: the same . sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. Compared to the USB. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. ANS: envelope 4. reinsert the carrier d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. digital data b. m1 + m2 c. Compared to the USB. ANS: two 5. commercial AM stations use low power c.
7. and 0. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. ANS: remains constant 9. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. In AM. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. the carrier power _________________________.5. In AM. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. ANS: one 10.4. ANS: less 8.6 . If the carrier power is 1000 watts. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts.707 4. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. In AM. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. as the modulation index increases. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. With a 1-MHz carrier. 0. what is the power in the USB at 70. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.3.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones.
what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts . A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts.5.
Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. none of the above . increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. it is band-limited at the receiver d. Narrowband FM c. Near Band FM d. the capture effect c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. the noise effect b. the limit effect ANS: B c. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. NBFM stands for: a. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. Carson's Rule d. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. Bessel functions d. Mathematically. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. fractals ANS: B 5. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the threshold effect d. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. Taylor series b. it is called: a. National Broadcast FM b. Armstrong's Rule b. The FM modulation index: a. One way to derive FM from PM is: a.
Pre-emphasis is used to: a. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. is not compatible with mono FM . using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. all of the above c. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. An SCA signal: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. can use amplitude modulation b. ANS: angle 2. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. none of the above ANS: A 9. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect b. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the time delay between the L and R channels d.8. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. FM stereo: a. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. is monaural d. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. the threshold effect d. ANS: data c. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10.
Mathematically. ANS: decreases 11. as the modulating frequency decreases. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. Compared to AM. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. As the FM modulation index increases. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: better 4. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal.3. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. Mathematically. ANS: increases 13. ANS: C 6. ANS: wider greater 5. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: any number 12. . ANS: amplitude 8. ANS: infinite 10. ANS: frequency 9. In FM. Compared to AM. as the frequency deviation decreases. In FM. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. the modulation index ____________________. the modulation index ____________________. their power ____________________. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: decreases 14. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. In FM.
What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. ANS: capture 20. 1-kHz audio signal? . ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2.4. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. ANS: Bessel 18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. ANS: threshold 19. such as 2.ANS: increases 15. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. For certain values of mf. ANS: Carson's 17. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________.
At a modulation index of 2. At a modulation index of 2. Record the audio frequency. Using Carson's rule.4 watts 6.1. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. For example. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. Using a spectrum analyzer. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7.ANS: 2 5. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. then δ is 11 kHz. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values.5. At a modulation index of 2. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0.2 watt) 8. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. 5.4. . what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10.5. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.
a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. heats the transmitter d. VFO b. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. all of the above c. all of the above ANS: D 3. may require water cooling b. With low-level AM: a. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. none of the above . none of the above ANS: B 4. minimum RF power is required d. With high-level AM: a. expansion d. Accurate Level Control d. all of the above c. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. In an AM transmitter. Amplitude Level Control b. a smaller number of signals d. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. ALC is used to: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. keep the modulation close to 100% b. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. With high-level AM: a. maximize transmitted power d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. is a measure of efficiency c. Baseband compression produces: a. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. agility c. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. ALC stands for: a.
the driver stage b. A Class D amplifier is: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. pi network c. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. none of the above . When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. 75 ohms resistive d. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. 1% tolerance or better b. the modulating amplifier c. a dummy load d. 50 ohms resistive c. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. very efficient c. 300 ohms resistive b. all of the above ANS: B 10. is complex c. In high-level AM. both a and b b. a temporary load b. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. wire-wound c. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. In high-level AM. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. none of the above ANS: C 13. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. the resistor must be: a. the RF amplifier d.ANS: C 9. the power level of the carrier b. a test load ANS: B 16. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. "high-level" refers to: a. the resistor is called: a. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. all of the above ANS: B 17. noninductive d. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. T network d. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. has variable amplitude d. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. has variable frequency b. a heavy load c. the carrier ANS: A 12.
none of the above ANS: C 21. essentially balanced modulators b. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. none of the above 20. a frequency multiplier d. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. Audio Frequency Control . a mixer ANS: A d. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. Frequency multipliers are: a. The carrier is suppressed in: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. all of the above c. integrates the modulating signal c. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. both a and b b. the carrier frequency can be raised b. both a and b d. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. a balanced modulator b. With mixing: a. A direct FM modulator: a. An indirect FM modulator: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. none of the above c. To generate a SSB signal: a. Automatic Frequency Control d. a mechanical filter c.b. start with a quadrature signal d. none of the above ANS: B 23. none of the above ANS: A 22. both a and b d. start with full-carrier AM b. AFC stands for: a. essentially mixers d. a crystal filter d. all of the above c.
ANS: agility 5. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. ANS: expansion 8. . ANS: linear 11. ANS: carrier 2. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. In Canada. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. In the USA. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. ANS: compression 7. ANS: efficiently 10. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. ANS: compression 9. a ____________________ stage is used. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ALC is a form of ____________________.d. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: FCC 3. ANS: Industry Canada 4.
To generate a SSB signal. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: mismatch 17. ANS: higher 13.ANS: buffer 12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. To allow a high modulation percentage. ANS: T 15. ANS: mixing 22. ANS: DSBSC . ANS: harmonic 16. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. ANS: receiver 18. ANS: driver 19. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: 50 14. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. ANS: duration 20. ANS: D 21.
What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . Assuming high-level modulation.005 MHz 6. To pass the USB. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. ANS: phase 24. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. ANS: reactance 25.23. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75.001%. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz.8% 3. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz.
7. ANS: First. . Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation.
all of the above c. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. Armstrong b. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the mixer d. small adjustable inductors d. Hertz ANS: C 3. "Skin effect" refers to: a. Active Gain Conversion c. Audio Gain Control b. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. the spurious response and the tracking d. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. two types of adjusting tools b. is above the RF frequency c. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. none of the above ANS: C 5. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. Trimmers and padders are: a. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. indeterminate frequency d. image frequency c. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. AGC stands for: a. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. Active Gain Control d. small adjustable capacitors . intermediate frequency b. "IF" stands for: a. Foster c. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the tuner b. Seeley d. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c.
the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. color video receivers ANS: B c. voice communications systems b. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. with two signals close in frequency. typically at 455 kHz. selectivity measures: a. When comparing values for shape factor: a. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. all of the above c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. a value of 0. monochrome video receivers d. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. there is no ideal value . a value of 1.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. is below the RF frequency c. is fixed. a value of 1. When comparing values for shape factor: a. the IF amplifiers d. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. Phase distortion is important in: a. it increases sensitivity c. the detector ANS: D 15.b. Basically. ANS: C 9. it is cheaper ANS: D 10.414 dB is ideal b.0 is ideal d. the mixer b. all of the above c. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. Basically. both values are basically equivalent d. it increases selectivity d. none of the above ANS: A 11. none of the above c. sensitivity measures: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a.
a BFO d. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. noise generated in the receiver d. enter the mixer. A common SSB detector is: a. all of the above c. a PLL b. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. all of the above ANS: C 23. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. An image must be rejected: a. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. none of the above ANS: C 20. enter the mixer. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. are transmitted on the same frequency b. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. ratio detector ANS: D 22. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. quadrature detector d.16. images cannot be rejected . Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. prior to mixing b. A common AM detector is the: a. envelope detector ANS: B 21. the AGC c. PLL b. the dynamic range of the receiver b. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. a diode ANS: D c. enter the mixer. ratio detector d. PLL b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. a product detector c. they are faster than silicon diodes b. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. prior to detection d. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. An FM detector is the: a. all of the above c.
use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. The function of AFC is: a. all of the above ANS: C 28. LNA stands for: a. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. AFC b. Low-Noise Audio d. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Audio Frequency Compensator b.24. Foster-Seeley detector c. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. reinject the carrier c. carrier detection b. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. envelope detection d. use double conversion d. a PLL detector b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. limiting ANS: B 30. AFC stands for: a. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. ratio detection . squelch d. to remove amplitude variations b. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. The function of a limiter is: a. you need to: a. a quadrature detector d. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. to limit noise response c. AGC c. to limit dynamic range d. maintain a constant IF frequency b. Automatic Frequency Control d. BFO stands for: a. coherent detection ANS: B 27.
Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. SAW stands for: a. all of the above ANS: C 36. DSP stands for: a. Digital Signal Processor c. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. it is a stable bandpass filter d. none of the above c. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. none of the above ANS: B 33. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Software-Activated Wave . The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. Tuned Receiver Function c. The important property of a SAW is: a. ANS: superheterodyne 2. The main function of the AGC is to: a. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. SINAD stands for: a. Distorted Signal Packet d. TRF stands for: a. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle.c. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b.
In a superhet. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: intermediate IF 9. ANS: Selectivity 13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. In a receiver. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: autodyne 11. ANS: lower 12. In low-side injection. the other changes with it. ANS: track 4. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. In a superhet. ANS: mixer 8. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: 1918 6. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: Sensitivity . ANS: front end 7. ANS: AGC 10. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: skin 5. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted.
ANS: product 19. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. ANS: coherent 21. ANS: carrier 20. . ANS: image 16. ANS: gate 25. ANS: conversion 15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. ANS: S 22. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. While still commonly found. ANS: obsolescent 23. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.14. Unlike the PLL detector. ANS: noisy 26. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: detector 17. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: amplitude 24. ANS: envelope 18. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________.
ANS: higher 31. ANS: over 28. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: fixed constant 32. ANS: S 34. ANS: IF 33.ANS: A 27. In a block converter. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: stagger 29. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. Compared to tuned circuits. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ANS: adjustment 30. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. Typically. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. ANS: limiting 35.
01 .20 kHz 2. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. Assuming high-side injection. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1.25 4. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF.06 7. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0.5 MHz. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.
The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. an amplifier c. Morse code d. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. Ten Dual-Manchester c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. a sample-and-hold circuit b. all of the above ANS: C 3. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. ASCII code b. Time-Division Multiplexing b. a filter d. Ten-Digital Manchester d. an analog-to-digital converter c. SR = 2fmax c. The first digital code was the: a. I = ktB b. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. Natural Sampling does not use: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. I = ktB b. I = ktB b. a regenerative repeater b. a fixed sample rate d. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. none of the above . C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. SR = 2fmax c. TDM stands for: a. In digital transmission. true binary numbers ANS: A c.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Baudot code ANS: C 2. I = ktB b. signal degradation can be removed using: a. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. SR = 2fmax c. Hartley's Law is: a. SR = 2fmax c.
decreases as the sample rate decreases c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. the α Law (alpha law) d. In North America. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. PWM d. b. a sample alias b. the A Law c. PCM d. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. You can have one or the other. They are the same thing. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. too few samples per second d. but not both. decreases as the sample rate increases b. companding uses: a. Companding is used to: a. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. PPM b. PPS ANS: D 13. ANS: D 10. PAM ANS: B 12. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14.9. c. noise b. none of the above ANS: A 15. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. The immediate result of sampling is: a. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. the Logarithmic Law b. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. They are two types of sampling error. d. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. all of the above . reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. PDM c. the µ Law (mu law) c. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PDM c.
is a biphase code b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. Code-Compression d. Compared to PCM. In delta modulation. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. Codec stands for: a. provides strong timing information d. delta modulation: a. the signal does not change d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. the Logarithmic Law b. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. all of the above ANS: D 25. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. the µ Law (mu law) . the bit rate is too high b. 4-bit numbers c. In Europe. transmits fewer bits per sample b. Compared to PCM. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. unipolar NRZ b. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. the A Law ANS: B 18. all of the above c. the α Law (alpha law) d. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. 12-bit numbers b. none of the above c. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. companding uses: a. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. can suffer slope overload d. Manchester d. Manchester coding: a. Coder-Decoder b. the signal changes too rapidly c. 8-bit numbers d. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d.ANS: D 17. AMI c. only over shorter distances b. "granular noise" is produced when: a.
1 b. 12 ANS: B 34. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 56 k d. 4 d. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 8 k c. pulse-width coding c. 64 k b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 2 ANS: D c. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. A typical T-1 line uses: c. 56 kb/s d. 4 d. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. carry signaling ANS: C 27. 1 b.544 Mb/s b. 64 kb/s d. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 1. 8 29. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 24 d. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. detect errors b. 1. 8 c.a. Manchester coding b. 56 kb/s b. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 1. all of the above c.544 MB/s c. 6 b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d.544 × 106 ANS: A 30. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. detect errors b. all of the above c. 8 kb/s . In DS-1. A T-1 cable uses: a. 48 c. 2 ANS: A 26. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. NRZ coding d.
Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. fiber-optic cable d. Compared to standard PCM systems. somewhat better d. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. an analog signal must first be ____________________. twisted-pair wire b. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. microwave c. A vocoder implements compression by: a. To send it over an analog channel. To send it over a digital channel. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. In analog channels. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. ANS: modulated 3. ANS: binary . ringing d.a. ANS: digitized 4. about the same b. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. busy signal ANS: D c. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. on-hook/off-hook condition b. much better c. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. all of the above 36. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. ANS: improved better 2.
ANS: Nyquist 16. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: Hartley's 12. and bandwidth.6. ANS: Time 10. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. ANS: limited 11. Ignoring noise. ANS: Foldover . ANS: correct 8. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ANS: Shannon 14. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. information capacity. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: error noise 9. ANS: regenerative 7. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ANS: Natural 15. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: codec 25. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.17. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: 12 26. ANS: Quantizing 21. ANS: 1 one 27. ANS: µ mu 23. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: A 24. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Aliasing 18. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: Pulse-code 20. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: amplitude 19. In a PCM system. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. In Europe. In North America. ANS: Companding 22. ANS: higher . The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
ANS: DC 33. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity.28. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: 24 38. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: polarity 34. In AMI. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: framing 39. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. In DS-1. ANS: 8000 40. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: half 32. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. . ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. ANS: timing 37. ANS: step 31. ANS: Granular 29. ANS: slope 30. In delta modulation. ANS: zeros 35. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: transition 36.
ANS: sixth 43.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. in dB.ANS: 1. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: 5 seconds 2. ANS: 2000 hertz 3.544 × 106 41. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. From a group of twelve frames. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. What is the approximate dynamic range. ANS: superframe 42.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4.
what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.ANS: 64 kbps 7.833 volt . what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.388 volt? ANS: 0. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.
an interexchange office c. a tandem office b. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. POTS stands for: a. A LATA is a: a. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. Central offices are connected by: a. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Local loops terminate at: a. PSTN stands for: a. local loops b. Local Area Telephone Access d. Local Area Transport Access c. Plain Old Telephone Service c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. LATA stands for: a. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. both a and b d. a way of accessing a tandem office d. a central office d. Local Access and Transport Area b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. a local calling area b. trunk lines ANS: B 7. Call blocking: a. Private Office Telephone System b. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. DTMF stands for: a. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. a toll station ANS: C 8. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . Public Switched Telephone Network b. a way of accessing a central office c.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Primary Operational Test System d. none of the above c. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b.
as long as it is attached to a local loop d. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. 200 µA to 800 µA d. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. fiber-optic c. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. In telephony. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. 20 hertz AC d. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. DC current flows through a telephone: a. 90 volts DC b. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. Power-On Protocol d. crossbar control d. when it is on hook b. 48 volts DC c. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. twisted-pair copper wire b. common control b. step-by-step switching control c. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. Post Office Protocol b. none of the above . reduce crosstalk d. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. POP stands for: a. Loading coils were used to: a.ANS: D 9. 20 µA to 80 µA c. FITL stands for: a. coaxial cable d. ESS ANS: C 16. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 48 volts. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. only when it is ringing c. 90 volts. Framing In The Loop d. 2 mA to 8 mA b.
6 c. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. supergroups b. 60 ANS: B 23. jumbogroups d. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. 90 volts DC d. prevent oscillation d. voice noise level . allow signals to be multiplexed b. 48 volts. eliminate reflections c. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. all of the above c. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. mastergroups ANS: D 24. voltage net loss b. PCM ANS: A 25. In telephone system FDM. prevent "singing" d. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. 20 hertz AC 18. VNL stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. PABX stands for: a. 90 volts. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 0 dBm ANS: C 22.a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. 48 volts DC b. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 1 mW b. 0 dBr c. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. SSB c. 24 b. all of the above ANS: C 19. 1 pW d. DSBSC d. volume net loss ANS: C 20. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. 12 d. PDM b. via net loss d.
SLIC stands for: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. frame alignment c. Integrated Services Digital Network b.26. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. ANS: LATA 2. ISDN stands for: a. provide synchronization b. much faster c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. it took to long to develop b. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. Compared to ISDN. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. c. Information Systems Digital Network 30. Access to Data Services Line . it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. In DS-1. cancel echoes d. it is too slow c. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. much more expensive b. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. justification d. Integrated Services Data Network d. about the same speed d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. all of the above ANS: D 31. check for errors c. compensation b. Allocated Digital Service Line d. ADSL stands for: a. A ____________________ is a local calling area. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. rectification ANS: C 29.
ANS: Loading 10. ANS: tip 12. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. Of the red and green 'phone wires. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. As compared to a hierarchical network. With 7-digit phone numbers. ANS: digital 7. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ANS: tandem 4. . the red wire is called ____________________. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: flat 9. ANS: ring 11. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: ten 5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: twisted-pair 8. the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: blocking 6. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: green 13.ANS: trunk 3. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: seized 14.
a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. In FDM telephony. amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: hybrid 16. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. Because of "bit robbing". ANS: lines 17. ANS: suppressor 22. ANS: conditioned 20. ANS: guard 25. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. In the telephone system. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: repeaters 21. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. ANS: DTMF 19. In a crosspoint switch. In FDM telephony. ANS: large 18. ANS: C-message 23. the modulation is usually ____________________. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: 56 .
the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. ANS: stuff 28. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: packet 31. ANS: TE1 34. ANS: superframe 27. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. If the loop current is 40 mA. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. In DS-1C. ANS: B 33. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . In ISDN. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: D 32. In ADSL. ANS: asymmetrical 35. ANS: in-channel 29. For a certain telephone. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network.26. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. In ISDN. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: common-channel 30.
Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP .) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. If the loop current is 40 mA. ANS: 1 dB 5. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. For a certain telephone.
ASCII stands for: a. data link control characters ANS: D 6. control characters d. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. over any distance b. BS.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FIGS data c. they do not have any other name d. Data codes are also called: a. alphanumeric characters b. Line Feed c. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. escape characters ANS: C 8. Line Forward c. Western Union d. Character codes include: a. numerical data b. over short distances only c. character codes b. the Morkum Company b. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. American Standard Character-set 2 b. and CR are examples of: a. none of the above c. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. both a and b c. LF stands for: a. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. nonstandard character codes b. all of the above ANS: B 5. In practical terms. character sets ANS: C 4. usually over long distances d. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. parallel data transmission is sent: a. Emile Baudot . American Standard Code 2 d. graphic control characters d. FF. all of the above c. binary data d.
the data bits d. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. Unaltered Received Text d. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. In asynchronous transmission. 128 bytes long d. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. the CRC bits b. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. the clock bits c. Link Feed ANS: A d. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. UART stands for: a. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. all of the above ANS: A 14. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c.b. equal to zero c. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. the frames are: a. In synchronous transmission. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. not synchronized at all. In synchronous transmission. Link Forward 9. not a set length ANS: D 12. the time between consecutive frames is: a. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. the channel must be noise-free . In asynchronous transmission. much longer than asynchronous frames c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. equal to one bit-time d. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. the transmitter and receiver are: a. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b.
Huffman codes: a.ANS: A 16. VRC is another name for: a. FEC stands for: a. automatic request for queue c. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. automatic request for resynchronization b. put data into a temporary buffer d. all of the above c. is identical to SDLC d. Control Receiver Code b. automatic receiver queue d. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. LRC d. requires the use of DLE d. HDLC: a. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. ARQ is used to: a. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. CRC stands for: a. correct bit errors b. none of the above c. ARQ ANS: D 23. BISYNC: a. "bit-stuffing" b. is an IBM product b. FEC b. Forward Error Correction d. all of the above . parity c. Fixed Error Control b. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. FEC d. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. ARQ c. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. Cycle Repeat Character c. is an IBM product b. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. False Error Condition c.
all of the above c. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. HDLC is: a. Synchronous Data Line Character c. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. Public-key encryption: a. compress data ANS: B 26. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: short 2. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. ANS: ASCII 5. ANS: character 4. an ISO standard d. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. correct data d. ANS: Baudot 3. SDLC stands for: a. Run-length encoding is used to: a. allows the use of digital signatures b. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. a bit-oriented protocol b. Synchronous Data Link Character d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. avoids the "password problem" d. ANS: FF c. none of the above . Synchronous Data Link Control b. encrypt data b. all of the above c.d.
ANS: stop 8. When receiving digital data. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ANS: start 7. In HDLC. ANS: efficient 12. ANS: buffers 11. ANS: 01111110 17. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. . each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: mark binary 1 9. ANS: transitions 13. At the end of an asynchronous frame. the line will be at the ____________________ level. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. ANS: UART 10. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: data 14. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: flag 16. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________.6. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit.
Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: even 24. DLE stands for data link ____________________. . public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: escape 19.ANS: block 18. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. ANS: compression 26. ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: cipher 27. ANS: password 28. ANS: ARQ 23. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: Burst 21. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. If the key is ____________________ enough. Because it is ____________________-intensive. ANS: long 29. ANS: decrypted 30. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ANS: burst 25. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: forward 22. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.
ANS: 97. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.7% 6. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5.0% . The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. ANS: 66. and two stop bits (it could happen).
use UTP cable d.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above ANS: B 7. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. are based on Ethernet b. each channel carries only one data stream c. none of the above ANS: B 6. all of the above c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. Collision Detection d. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. not as widely used c. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Carrier Detection b. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. CSMA stands for: a. none of the above . slower c. Dumb terminals are still used: a. token-passing rings are: a. Collision Delay c. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. Carrier Server Master Application d. Each computer on a network is called a: a. in token-passing networks b. a very large CSMA/CD network d. hub b. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. not really a network at all c. Most LANs: a. Client-Server Multi-Access b. In a circuit-switched network: a. node d. token ANS: C 8. The Internet is: a. circuit c. a network of networks b. communication is half-duplex only b.
all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. none of the above ANS: D 10. tokens ANS: A 11. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. it is called: a. a node b. multiple access ANS: A 13. nodes d. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. excess traffic b. it is called: a. none of the above c. MAU stands for: a. contention d. more expensive ANS: D d. The effect of too many collisions is: a. a central bus d. users d. a central ring c. CSMA c. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. data is lost . the network goes down b.b. IEEE 802. packets b. EIA 232 c. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. excess traffic b. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. On networks.3 c. multiple access ANS: B 12. Multistation Access Unit b. the cable overheats d. all of the above 9. collisions ANS: D 15. token-passing b. nodes c. carriers b. a collision c. the network slows down ANS: B 16. packets c. Ethernet d. contention d. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. In an Ethernet-based network. a collision c.
fiber-optic cable b. a BNC connector c. RG-58U coaxial cable d. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a.1 ANS: C 18. all of the above ANS: C 24. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. Network Interface Code d. 50-ohm coaxial cable . CCITT ITU-E c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. Ethernet was invented by: a. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a.b. IEEE 488. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. Network Internal Code c. Three-Level encoding d. NIC stands for: a. the cable carries baseband signals b. an RJ45 connector c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. IBM b. none of the above ANS: A 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. NRZ encoding b. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. all of the above ANS: C 23. Network Interface Card b. to increase the data rate b. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. INTEL ANS: C d. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. Xerox d. to increase the data rate b. Manchester encoding c.
none of the above ANS: B . Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. UTP stands for: a. client-server networks d. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. it is cheaper when used in large networks b.b. modulate the data onto a carrier b. all of the above ANS: D 32. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. Broadband LANs: a. all of the above ANS: C 28. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. use coaxial cables c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. both a and b b. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. it is faster when used in large networks c. allow faster bit rates b. Unicode Text Packet 27. are cheaper c. all of the above ANS: C 31. an RS11 connector c. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. a T connector ANS: C 26. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. A hub: a. A switch: a. CAT-5 cables: a. peer-to-peer networks c.
a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. UNIX-based c. ANS: Local 2. ANS: star 4. ANS: packet c. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. ANS: circuit 5. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. ANS: token 7. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.33. all nodes are connected to a central computer. same as a "dumb" terminal d. basically. The Internet is a network of ____________________. all of the above . store records securely on a server b. Novell certified ANS: C 35. A "thin" client is: a. Record locking is used to: a. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. none of the above ANS: C 34. multitasking b. WINDOWS-based d. In a ____________________-switched network. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. a PC with no disk drives b. ANS: topology 6. In a ____________________ network. ANS: networks 3. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network.
the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. one big hub. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: backbone 13. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: collision 10. In CSMA/CD. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected.8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. In CSMA/CD. ANS: Contention 9. ANS: 100 mega 14. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. ANS: NIC 17. ANS: stacked 19. In CSMA/CD networks. ANS: detected 11. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: length 16. ANS: address . in effect. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. all collisions must be ____________________. ANS: minimum 15. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.
and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. 5. 3. 2. . send a packet. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. 4. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. the entire network is inoperative. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet.20. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. The collision would not be detected. What is a NIC address. It still works like a token-passing ring. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order.
8 c. link layer c. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. cable layer b. 7 d. error-check layer d. Standard Network Architecture d. real-time delivery d. Packet switching is based on: a. physical layer ANS: D 7. 3 b. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. frame layer b. transport layer ANS: A 6.25 ANS: D c. MAN stands for: a. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. Standard Network Access b. link layer d. physical layer c. all of the above c. all of the above c. is faster than X. Systems Network Architecture c. SNA stands for: a. user b. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. link layer ANS: C 8. Manchester Access Network b. Multiple Access Network . Frame Relay: a. Metropolitan-Area Network d. 5 ANS: C 5. network d. frame c. switched circuits ANS: A 3. store-and-forward b.25 b. does less error checking than X. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. allows for variable length packets d.
Asynchronous Transmission Model d. connection-oriented protocol b. datagrams c. TCP/IP consists of: a. UDP stands for: a. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. non-robust protocol c. Transmission Control Process b. Universal Data Packet c. an application and a process d. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. 7 layers ANS: A 14. all of the above ANS: D 11. Internet Process b. Interconnect Procedure . connectionless protocol d. looks at the address of each packet c. User Datagram Protocol b. Automatic Test Mode 10. separates a network into "collision domains" b. is essentially forever b. Transfer Connection Protocol d. none of the above c. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b.9. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. IP is a: a. A bridge: a. 5 layers b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. IP stands for: a. Interconnect Protocol d. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. User Data Packet d. ATM stands for: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. TCP stands for: a. operate at the data-link level d. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. Together. HTTP stands for: a.
file transport ANS: C 19. Hypertext Markup Language b. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. File Transfer Protocol b. SMTP stands for: a. web page layout d. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. ISP stands for: a. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. dumb terminals b.b. a 32-bit binary number b. four groups of base-ten numbers c. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. all of the above c. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. none of the above c. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Short Message Transport Protocol b. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Internet Service Procedure d. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. HTTP allows the use of: a. all of the above c. none of the above ANS: A 23. FTP is used to: a. running out of available values d. browsers d. Internet Service Protocol b. telneting b. HTML allows: a. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Fast Transport Packet c. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. none of the above . File Test Procedure d. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. HTML stands for: a. FTP stands for: a.
A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. none of the above c. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. a "firewall" b. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. translates words to numbers c. OSI stands for: a. ANS: Metropolitan 2. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. c. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. A DNS: a. DNS stands for: a. ANS: Wide 3. stores all domain addresses d.ANS: D 26. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. Open Systems Internet d. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. Domain Naming System . Domain Numbering System d. a "brick wall" d. ANS: forward 6. ANS: switched 5. Open Systems Interconnection b. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. has become obsolete on the Internet b. ANS: leased 4. a DNS c. Domain Name Server b.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
FSK c. modulation index ANS: C 6. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. M is the: a. amperes b.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. PSK b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. the eye is maximally closed d. none of the above c. QAM stands for: a. Phase-Signal Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying c. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. none of the above . FSK stands for: a. margin of noise b. Full-Shift Keying b. the eye is half open b. Full-Signal Keying d. bits d. amperes per second ANS: C 5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. too many bits low d. AFSK d. PSK stands for: a. the eye is maximally open c. Pulse-Signal Keying b. In the equation I = ktB. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. QAM ANS: A c. too many bits high c. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. I is measured in: a. bits per second c. number of possible states per symbol d. maximum number of symbols per second c. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. intermodulation distortion b. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d.
600 bps. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. 90. a dibit b. FSK d. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11.9. CCITT b. a QPSK symbol contains: a. and 270 degrees c. FSK c. the U. For QAM. 300 bps. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. 225. FSK b. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. 3π/4. low SNR d. Instead of a single bit. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. and 4π/4 b.N. amplitude and phase angle d. frequency and phase angle b. 2π/4. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. ANSI c. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. all of the above . 135. a random sequence c. FSK ANS: A 14. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. and 315 degrees d. Gaussian bits b. effects of noise on symbols d. angles of 0. random bits c. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. full-duplex. To reduce the need for linearity. 1200 bps. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. 1200 bps. IEEE d. uneven phase and frequency response c. half-duplex. ANS: B 16. noise and interference b. angles of π/4. a training sequence d. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. full-duplex. International Telecommunications Units c. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. International Telecommunications Union d. 4 bits d. 180. amplitude and frequency c. International Telephony Unit b. For QAM. full-duplex. angles of 45. a byte c.
In RS-232. a DTR b. MNP2. data-compression schemes b. The official name for RS-232C is: a. 7 ANS: C 26. 5 b. 7 c.90 standard is issued by: a. 5 b. 1 c. The V. RS-232C b. none of the above c. a personal computer would be: a. a modem would be: a. ISO-232C/D d. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. MNP3. a DTE c. a DCE d. MNP4. the ITU d. a DCE d. data-compression schemes b. In RS-232. the TIA ANS: C 19. and MNP10 are all: a. flow control is done using: a. signal ground is pin: a. none of the above c. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. both a and b d. the ISO . both a and b d. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. RTS/CTS handshake b. ANSI-232C c. 1 c.ANS: C 18. 3 d. both a and b d. a DSR ANS: C 24. a DTR b.42 bis are both: a. the EIA b. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. a DSR ANS: D 25. none of the above c. In RS-232. 3 d. MNP5 and V. signal ground is pin: a. a DTE c. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector.
TD. Head Frequency Control b. In a CATV system. Analog DSL d. RD. TD and RD ANS: A 30.ANS: D 27. TD. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. +15 volts c. DSR. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. Software flow control uses: a. TD and RD ANS: C 29. ADSL stands for: a. Any DSL scheme c. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. HFC stands for: a. DSR and DCD c. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Data Signal Line b. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. none of the above c. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. RD. and signal ground ANS: B 28. RTS and CTS d. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. RTS. Digital Subscriber Line d. +9 volts b. XON and XOFF b. RTS and CTS d. CMTS stands for: a. TD and RD b. DSR and DCD c. XON and XOFF b. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. Hybrid Fiber Control c. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Asynchronous DSL b. and signal ground d. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. Double-Speed Loop c. DSL stands for: a. ADSL d. +12 volts d. ADSL Lite b. CTS. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. and signal ground . Hardware flow control uses: a. RD. TD. In a CATV system. All DSL c.
. ANS: CTS 3. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ANS: Delta 10. ANS: four 9. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. In QAM modems. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: constellation 11. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ANS: baud 7. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. ANS: Send 2. The response to RTS is ____________________. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: Keying 4. ANS: Telecommunications 12.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. ANS: dibit 8. ANS: Data 5. RTS means Request To ____________________. ANS: Quadrature 6. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready.
Between hardware flow control and software flow control.ANS: Trellis 13. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. In RS-232. In a CATV system using cable modems. ANS: hardware 18. ANS: 3 19. ANS: 54k 15. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ANS: tree 22. ____________________ flow control is preferred. . the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: CMTS 23. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: 20k 16. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ANS: Equalization 14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. ANS: null 20.
ANS: ADSL 25. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. If half the modems are active at any given time. ANS: DMT 27. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. ANS: 4000 2. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. A DMT system uses 4.ANS: Ranging 24. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . ANS: lite 26.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4.
TDM is used in RF communications d. 64 channels c. every twelfth frame c. TDMA stands for: a. T-bit ANS: D 8. 256 kbps d. every other frame c. CDMA stands for: a. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. all of the above ANS: C 5. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. 1.536 Mbps b. every frame b. the bandwidth of each signal b. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. all the signals come from the same source b. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. signaling bit d. In DS-1.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. none of the above . a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. A DS-1 signal contains: a. Besides data bits.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 64 kbps c. the type of media used c. none of the above c. 24 channels ANS: B 6. Code-Division Multiple Access b. Tone Division Multiple Access d. 1. timing bit b. When calculating the maximum number of users. the signals come from different sources c. Time Domain Multiple Access b. 32 channels d. framing bit c. the length of the channel d. every sixth frame d. 12 channels b.
line switching b. all of the above c. To calculate processing gain. compared to standard RF systems. time switching c. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. much less bandwidth b. the S/N ratio b. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. multiplexer b. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. about the same bandwidth c. a CDMA receiver c. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver b. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. computer speed ANS: C 16. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. spreading gain d. space switching d. time switching c. direct-sequence method d. much more bandwidth d. direct-sequence systems. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. crosspoint switch . the digital data bit rate c. direct-sequence method d. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. bandwidth of original baseband d. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. RF gain b. a wideband receiver d. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a.ANS: C 9. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. TDM switch ANS: D 12. the chip size ANS: B 17. computerized Strowger switch d. space switching d. all of the above c. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. A digital space switch is a: a. signal switching b. use: a. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. For a given data rate.
each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. ANS: frequency . and ____________________. Using CDMA on a radio channel. true-random PN sequences b. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. a direct-conversion receiver b. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time.ANS: A 18. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. CDMA: a. ANS: share 2. orthogonal PN sequences c. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: time 7. a wideband receiver d. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. ANS: all 4. ANS: all 6. CDMA requires the use of: a. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. ANS: part 5. ANS: CDMA 3. In FDM. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. In TDM. For optimal performance. a narrowband receiver c. TDMA. cannot be used on an RF channel d.
ANS: 24 9. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. ANS: 193 11. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: time 16.8. ANS: pseudo 18. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.544 Meg 12. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. ANS: Rayleigh 17. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 1. ANS: space 15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: 8 13. ANS: hopping 19. ANS: superframe 14. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. . It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: AMI 10. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: difficult 20. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. 5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________.ANS: difficult 21. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. 2. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. ANS: ten 23. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. ANS: chips 22. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. 4. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. So the more bandwidth available. by definition. ANS: code 24. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. the higher the possible bit rate. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise.
the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. f22. (f11. f23.. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. .. f22. At some point in time. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. f12. . f13. If the two sets of frequencies. f12. and so forth.).) and (f21. and so forth. 6. f13. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. f23.. have no frequencies in common. . What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. as it is in spread-spectrum..ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one.
Time-Domain Response d. stays the same b. the skin effect b. Shorted Wire Region d. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. ideal elements ANS: B 5. When analyzing a transmission line. As frequency increases. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. an open-wire-line cable d. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. all of the above c. SWR stands for: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. I2R loss c. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. changes periodically ANS: A 6. the resistance of a wire: a. decreases d. distributed d. decreases d. Transmission Delay Ratio c. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the Ohmic effect d. lumped c. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a coaxial cable b. As frequency increases. TDR stands for: a. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. Total Distance of Reflection b. Shorted Wave Radiation b. increases c. equal reactances b. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. stays the same b. increases c. none of the above . its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a.
The optimum value for SWR is: a. there is no optimum value c. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. all of the above ANS: B 12. none of the above . zero b. as large as possible d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. one ANS: B 16. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. increases with voltage d. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. the inductance per foot b. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. equal to Z0 b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. increases with length b. higher voltage peaks on cable d. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. loss of power to load c. the dielectric constant d. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. all of the above c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. For best matching.ANS: D 9. lower than Z0 c. the load on a cable should be: a. standing waves b. the wire resistance c. higher than Z0 d. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b.
none of the above . optimum length of a transmission line d. the current d. would be less c.ANS: D 17. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. find the position of a defect in a cable c. zero c. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. directly c. assuming it to be zero c. one d. none of the above ANS: C 25. Compared to a 300-ohm line. none of the above ANS: D 24. On a Smith Chart. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. by using a filter d. the voltage c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. the characteristic impedance b. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. dividing it by 2π d. A TDR is commonly used to: a. transmission line impedances b. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. is zero d. variable SWR b. is the characteristic impedance b. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. would be the same b. by using a "balun" b. VSWR stands for: a. would be more d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. is infinite c. multiplying it by 2π b. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. the impedance b. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. transmission line losses c. voltage SWR d.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.2 9. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. If a cable has an SWR of 1. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 . What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1.7. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.5 8. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10.5.
TEM stands for: a. gamma waves d. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. Marconi ANS: B 3.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. both a and b b. none of the above ANS: C 7. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above ANS: A 4. 300 × 10 meters per second d. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. Hertz d. Armstrong c. all of the above ANS: C 5. all of the above . In free space. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. True Electromagnetic d. high power levels c. the microprocessor chip c. Hertz d. 3 × 106 meters per second c. radio waves b. high-power microwave transmitters b. Transverse Electromagnetic b. Maxwell b. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. none of the above c. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. light ANS: D 6. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. Armstrong c. Marconi ANS: C 2. reuse of frequencies b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. Maxwell b. perpendicular to each other c. high antennas d. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b.
horizontal d. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. circular b. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. all of the above ANS: D 10. vertical c. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. none of the above . The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. vertical c. circular b. 2 d. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. at microwave frequencies d. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. below about 2 MHz b. refraction c. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. a flat body of water c. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. 3 b. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. Ground waves are most effective: a. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. horizontal d. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. an isotropic radiator b. EIRP stands for: a. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. a ground-wave antenna d. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b.9. when using horizontally polarized waves c. 1 c. all of the above ANS: D 11. many ANS: B 12. reflection c.
close to the transmitter b. the reuse of frequencies c. in the "silent" zone d. send a message multiple times over a channel b. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. reflected off the ionosphere c. are same as space waves d. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. the cell area is increased c. diffraction ANS: C 23. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. the radio horizon d. line-of-sight b.b. diffusion ANS: D d. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. repeaters ANS: D 25. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. diffraction d. Space waves are: a. fading c. are line-of-sight b. multipath distortion d. fading b. cancellation due to reflection c. same as sky waves d. Sky waves: a. frequency diversity b. extend the range of a radio communications system d. high power b. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. A "repeater" is used to: a. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. diffraction 18. in the "skip" zone . A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. the power levels are increased c.
The troposphere is the: a. multiple receivers b. not possible c. ANS: Hertz 3.b. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. none of the above ANS: B 28. also called "ducting" d. a "funnel" receiver c. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the number of channels is reduced 26. a "handoff" process occurs c. highest layer of the atmosphere b. the cell area is split ANS: B d. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. ANS: 300 × 106 5. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. To receive several data streams at once. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . both cells will handle the call b. Unlike sound or water waves. c. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. used for radio telephony b. ANS: transverse 4. ANS: Maxwell 2. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. a "rake" receiver d. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. a "sectoring" process occurs d. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. ANS: photons 6.
ANS: sphere 10. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave.ANS: medium 7. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. ANS: circular 15. ANS: specular . The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: gain 16. ANS: 3 × 106 8. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. ANS: electric 12. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. ANS: perpendicular 13. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. With ____________________ polarization. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. At a far distance from the source. ANS: plane 11. ANS: decrease 17. ANS: perpendicular 14. ANS: isotropic 9.
____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. ANS: Refraction 19. each covering a third of the cell area. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ANS: Space 21. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. ANS: low 27. ANS: reuse 28. to reduce interference. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: Sky 23. ANS: Sectoring 29. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: Ground 22. ANS: reflected 26. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas.18. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ANS: skip 24. ANS: microprocessor . The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. ANS: multipath 25.
3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function.9 km 5. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. what is the power density 10. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6.SHORT ANSWER 1. approximately.
resonance ANS: A 7. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. none of the above . the reflected signal d. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. the radiated signal c. in one direction c. in two directions d. in all directions b. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. between half-power points d. infinite ANS: A 8.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. from front to back c. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. selectivity d. a Yagi antenna d. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. SWR along the feed cable d. the SWR b. 0 dB c. all of the above ANS: A 2. between the minor side-lobes c. one half-wavelength d. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. 3 dB d. radiation resistance of the antenna b. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. a Marconi antenna b. one wavelength c. from +90° to –90° b. Measured on the ground. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. 10 dB b. active antenna b. directivity c.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
ANS: balun 17. ANS: parasitic 25. ANS: gain 16. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: ground 22. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. ANS: vertical 20. ANS: effective 15. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. ANS: wider greater more 19. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.14. . ANS: one 24. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. ANS: horizontal 18. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.
A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. ANS: focus 28.ANS: log-periodic 26. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. ANS: horn 30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. If an LPDA had five elements. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. ANS: collimated 29. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. If an antenna has 10. ANS: five 27. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .
The UHF range is: a. below the microwave range b. TE 11 d.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. is fixed b. 1 GHz d. through a hole in the waveguide b. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. all of the above c. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. it is dominant c. both b and c ANS: D 8. TM 01 ANS: C 6. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. the power level of the signal d. depends on the frequency it carries c. the shape of the waveguide c. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. with a magnetic field probe c. TE 10 a. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. with an electric field probe d. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz b. TM11 b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. TE 01 c. TE 01 b. none of the above ANS: A 4. the point of signal injection b. TM10 ANS: C 5. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. it is the only mode possible b. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. same as the microwave range . above the microwave range d. of its circular symmetry d. TM 01 d. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a.
Traveling-Wave Transmission c. Transverse Wave Transmission b. couple components on a circuit board d. none of the above c. Traveling-Wave Tube d. an H-plane TEE b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. their insertion loss c. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. tuned circuit b. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. their coupling specification d. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. antenna d. separates signals among various ports d. A "circulator" is a device that: a. GaAs stands for: a. gallium arsenide b. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. gallium astenite d. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12.ANS: D 9. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. TWT stands for: a. none of the above . gallium assembly ANS: A c. a "magic" TEE d. couple sections of waveguide b. separates signals among various ports d. all of the above c. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. their directivity b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. An "isolator" is a device that: a. none of the above c. all of the above ANS: D 10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13.
TWT c. YIG ANS: B 23. an electric field b. radio ranging b. RADAR uses: a. klystron d. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. pulsed transmission b. implied power at transmission terminal d. RADAR stands for: a. mechanical pressure d. the Doppler effect d. none of the above c. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. slots c. magnetron b. TWT c. remote detection and ranging . IMPATT stands for: a. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. a magnetic field ANS: B c. klystron d. klystron d. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. YIG ANS: A 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. YIG ANS: C 21. TWT c. radio detection and ranging d. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. none of the above c. YIG stands for: a. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. magnetron b. impact avalanche and transit time b. magnetron b. all of the above c. all of the above ANS: A 24.17. Yagis d. Fresnel lenses b. an "exciter" signal 20. continuous transmission ANS: D c.
the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. none of the above ANS: B 27. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. In a circular waveguide. In a waveguide. ANS: two 6. ANS: dominant 4. increases with increasing repetition rate c. . increases with increasing pulse duration c. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. In a waveguide. ANS: Dispersion 2.26. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: slower 9. ANS: electric 5. ANS: TM01 7. ANS: zero 3. ANS: faster 10. In a waveguide. In TE10 mode. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. decreases with increasing pulse period b. In TE20 mode. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. ANS: high 8. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: high 13. ANS: cavity 14. ANS: patch 19. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. . ANS: slot 18. ANS: resistance 15. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. ANS: smaller 20. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1.ANS: decreases 11. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: linear 17. ANS: wave 16. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. ANS: hybrid 12. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes.
Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 173 millimeters 5. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. ANS: 15 km 7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.8 6. ANS: 14.ANS: 3 GHz 2.
FM b. additional repeaters increase the: a. SSB ANS: D 3. Microwave systems use: a. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. reliability c.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above ANS: B 6. jitter c. QAM d. Line-Of-Sight d. section c. In analog microwave systems. all of the above ANS: C 7. a very narrow microwave beam b. none of the above ANS: A 5. additional repeaters increase the: a. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. Too much antenna gain causes: a. hop d. 2 watts c. skip b. noise level d. LOS stands for: a. In digital microwave systems. Loss Of Skip b. 99. jitter b.9% b. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. jump ANS: B 2. 90% c. jitter b. noise level d. Line-Of-Signal c. 99. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. 20 watts d. 200 watts b.99% ANS: D 4. excessive noise d. all of the above . reliability c. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. 99% d.
Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. regenerative type d. none of the above ANS: A 11. less bandwidth is required c. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. accumulation of noise is reduced d. always b. power d. MMDS stands for: a. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. ducting d. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. baseband type ANS: D 16.9. high level of ERP c. Fading is caused by: a. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. low level of transmitted power b. all of the above . above 10 GHz d. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. high-gain antennas b. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. IF type b. multipath reception b. below 10 GHz c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. diversity c. all of the above ANS: A 14. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. all of the above ANS: B 17. all of the above c. 60% of the Faraday zone c. it requires less power b. Microwave repeaters can be: a.
LMDS stands for: a. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. ANS: hop 2. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. ANS: studio 3. In digital microwave systems. Local Microwave Distribution System b. One microwave link is called a ____________________. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: jitter 5. ANS: fading c. ANS: noise density 7. multidirectional d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19.b. bidirectional b. ANS: year 4. none of the above . Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. LMDS is: a. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. In microwave systems. ANS: temperature 6.
The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. but ____________________ is bidirectional. ANS: noise 14.8. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? .4 meters 3. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. approximately. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: baseband 13. ANS: space 9. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. what would it be. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. ANS: diversity 10. MMDS is unidirectional. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. ANS: Repeaters 12. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. ANS: ten 11.
4 dBm 4. The noise power is –100 dBm. ANS: 201 K 5. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB . A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K.ANS: –42. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal.
1250 ANS: A 5. 525 c. 60 ANS: B 6. contrast c. National Television Systems Council d. 525 : 625 d. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. 3 : 4 b. Red-Green Bandwidth d. National Television Systems Committee c. IEEE ANS: C 3. brightness b. 25 c. 30 d. Red-Green-Blue . The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 625 : 525 c. IRE d.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 1024 b. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 50 b. EIA b. chroma d. Red-Green Burst b. 50 b. 625 d. RGB stands for: a. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. 60 ANS: D 7. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. National Television Systems Commission b. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 30 d. FCC c. NTSC stands for: a. raster c. Luminance refers to: a. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 25 c.
max white b. When measured in lines. horizontal resolution: a. is less than vertical resolution d. quadrature phase color component b. whiter than white b. whiter than white c. lumins ANS: C 10. is greater than vertical resolution b. blacker than black ANS: D 13. all white d. In a color TV receiver. composite video signal. IRE units d. composite color signal. The smallest picture element is called a: a. blacker than black ANS: B 12. none of the above c. in-phase video component. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. equalize the DC level d. luminance signal. pic ANS: C 16. white c. The maximum luminance level is called: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. white c. black d.ANS: A 9. in-phase color component. Luminance is measured in: a. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. black d. foot-candles b. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. pixel d. maintain horizontal sync b. quadrature video color component d. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. dot b. peak white ANS: B 11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. whiter than white b. NTSC units . in-phase color component. quadrature phase color component c. Y I Q refers to: a. all of the above c.
suppressed-carrier AM b. SSB c. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the isolation transformer c. SSB c. Compared to the luminance signal. separate audio program b. SAP stands for: a. about the same d. vestigial sideband AM d. much greater c. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. all of the above ANS: D 22. the flyback transformer b. much higher d. SSB c. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. FM ANS: B 19. vestigial sideband AM d.17. about the same c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. the yoke ANS: C 24. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. sync audio pulse . electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. vestigial sideband AM d. detect the presence of a color video signal b. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. FM ANS: D 20. much less b. sync amplitude pulse d. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. much lower b. FM ANS: C 21. Compared to a monochrome CRT. the video transformer d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a.
Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. Color information is called ____________________. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. ANS: retraces 5. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height.d. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. none of the above . ANS: scanning 4. allowed full picture chroma b. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. ANS: composite 6. automatic frequency and picture control d. ANS: NTSC 3. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. Brightness information is called ____________________. AFPC stands for: a. ANS: aspect 7. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. ANS: Aquadag 2. ANS: luma luminance 8. ANS: porch c. During the horizontal blanking interval.
ANS: 525 16. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. ANS: green 17. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.10. not including blanking. ANS: 62.58 18. ANS: pixels 15. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. .5 12. ANS: 3. ANS: 20 to 30 21. ANS: 1. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. Picture elements are called ____________________. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 10 13. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. ANS: position 11. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. ANS: separate 19. ANS: phosphor 22. ANS: ultor 20.3 14. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.
ANS: head 27.ANS: flyback 23. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: saturation 29. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: dBmV 26. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. ANS: phase 30. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: comb 24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. Color intensity is called ____________________. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: killer 25. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: vectorscope 28. ANS: convergence . ANS: purity 31.
is zero (freefall) c. azimuth and elevation c. footprint b.578 km c. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. 10 watts d. all of the above . apogee and perigee c. 357. respectively.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. solar cells b. downlink d. batteries d. perigee and apogee d. declination and elevation b. 500 to 2500 watts b. 5 to 25 watts c. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. 3. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a.780 km d.: a. 35. uplink and downlink b. azimuth and declination d. plate ANS: C 4. 103 watts 2 b. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. is constant b. 104 watts ANS: C 8. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6.800 km b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. 101 watts c. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. transponders c. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. earth station c.
low power to a large antenna b. very small antenna terminal d. TVRO stands for: a. On the uplink from a terminal. down-beam signal ANS: D 11.ANS: A 9. time-division multiple access d. video satellite b. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. backdown c. low-noise amplifier b. decibels of signal b. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. backoff d. repeater c. very small aperture terminal c. star b. television remote origin d. power-down b. DBS stands for: a. VSAT stands for: a. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. antenna maintenance b. low power to a small antenna d. LNA stands for: a. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. low-noise amplitude d. a VSAT system uses: a. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. mesh c. direct-broadcast satellite c. none of the above . TDMA stands for: a. none of the above c. orbital adjustments d. low north angle ANS: A 12. ring d. low-noise array c. high power to a small antenna c. direct-broadcast system d. television receive only b. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. television repeater only ANS: A 14. transmit delay minimum aperture c.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. PCS stands for: a. MSC stands for: a. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Manual Identification Number b. Mobile Switching Center b. Emission Strength Number d. MIN stands for: a. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Minimum Signal Carrier c.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Number Access Module d. Electronic Serial Number b. Personal Cell phone Service d. Maximum In-band Noise d. Radio Common Carrier b. MTSO stands for: a. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. RCC stands for: a. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. ESN stands for: a. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . AMPS stand for: a. Numerical Access Mode b. none of the above c. American Mobile Phone System b. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Minimum In-band Noise c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. NAM stands for: a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Portable Communications Systems c. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Number Assignment Module c. Personal Communications Service b. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. none of the above c. Regional Cellular Carrier d.
Digital Communications Carrier d. Serial-Code Mode c. Service Class Mark b. SCM stands for: a. voice is sent using: a. Signal Class Mark d. control access to the cell site b. SAT stands for: a. Digital Color Code b. none of the above c. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. code number of a cell phone b. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. FSK c. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17.9. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. recognize an AMPS system c. System Identification Number d. Central Mobile Access Control d. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. maximum power level of a cell phone c. DCC stands for: a. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. In an AMPS system. base-station class ANS: D 11. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. Station Antenna Tower b. AM c. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. SID stands for: a. Direct Channel Code . CMAC stands for: a. set its transmitted power level d. set the access code of the cell phone c. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Supervisory Access Tone d. SCM identifies the: a. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. The CMAC is used to: a. signal classification (analog or digital) d.
less than 600 µW. calls b. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. 4 watts ANS: B 20. BSC c. 0. c. Basic Service Code . increase the ERP b. none of the above c. number of users d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. In an AMPS system. d. BSC stands for: a. less than 600 mW. CDMA ANS: C 19. CDPD stands for: a. Base Station Controller b. 2 km b.5 km ANS: D 23. as small as possible d.b. Coded Digital Packet Data d. CDMA 18. FSK b. decrease the number of cells d. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. erlangs ANS: B 24. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. between 1 and 2 watts b. AM c. Basic Service Contract d. MTSO d. Phone traffic is measured in: a. number of blocked calls c. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. Code-Division Packet Data b. RF interface b. FM d. FM ANS: B d. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. air interface ANS: D 22. increase the number of cells c. control-channel signals are sent using: a.
ANS: III three 10. ANS: reuse 4. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. A portable.5 6. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. For security. ANS: handoff 5. ANS: 0. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: land station 11. . ANS: AMPS 3. ANS: 800 2.1. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. ANS: 600 mW 9. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. ANS: I one 8. ANS: attenuation 12. ANS: three 7. handoffs will occur too frequently.
ANS: 1.ANS: public 13. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.6 3. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: picocells 20. ANS: MTSO 14. 2. ANS: dropped 17. ANS: microcell 19. ANS: erlangs 16. ANS: splitting 18. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. If a 28. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. What is the traffic in erlangs? . Compared with AMPS. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: traffic 15. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. 2. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones.
the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.ANS: 30 4. .
third-generation d. CDMA technology was invented by: a. all of the above c. AT&T b. 2 c. Europe ANS: D c. PCS cell sites are: a. AMPS was designed for: a. bigger b. from mobile to mobile d. second-generation ANS: B 2. higher-power c. all of the above c. same as the uplink c. many ANS: B 7. smaller ANS: B 5. POTS b. 3 d. 1. use built into an automobile d. 800 MHz c. from the base to the mobile b. distributed d. GSM is used in: a. Qualcomm c. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. first-generation b. 900 MHz d. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. Lucent ANS: D 8. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. Bell Labs d. 4 b. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. Compared to AMPS. Asia b.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. North America d. The "forward" PCS channel is: a.9 GHz b. voice ANS: D 6. digital-generation .
all of the above c. Short Inbound Message b. TDMA ANS: C 17. voice channels are called: a. Subscriber ID Method c. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. frequency hopping b. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. bearer channels d. IMSI stands for: a. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. less than in a TDMA phone c. no PCS system c. CDMA d. Other things being equal. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. spread-spectrum d. frequency hopping b. GSM only d. TDMA ANS: D c. AMPS uses: a. SIM stands for: a. CDMA b. TDMA only b. CDMA d. voice channels ANS: A 10. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. CDMA d. In GSM. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. IS-136 uses: a. frequency hopping b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. all of the above .9. IS-95 uses: a. GSM uses: a. Subscriber ID Module d. none of the above 11. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. traffic channels b. all of the above c. talking channels c. In GSM. TDMA c. greater than in a TDMA phone b.
wider roaming area b. Besides TDMA and CDMA. all frequencies are used in all cells b. orthogonal . ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. common b. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. ANS: second 3. faster data rates c. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. rotating d. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. Compared to AMPS. ANS: GSM 6. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. ANS: smaller 5. In North America. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. ANS: Personal 2. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. ANS: 1900 4. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. Internet access d.ANS: B 18. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. In CDMA: a. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. unique ANS: D 20.
ANS: frequency hopping 8. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: 50 16. ANS: Universal . ANS: soft 9. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: Frequency 13. ANS: less 14. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. Unlike AMPS. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. ANS: random 12. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: Packet 18.7. Unlike other systems. ANS: closed 17. ANS: all 11. ANS: Mobile 19. ANS: Walsh 10. ANS: variable 15. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder.
2. 4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. To demodulate. 8. 3. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. and what causes it? . 6. it never goes to zero. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. ANS: Wireless 21. 7. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA.20. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. Why was PCS assigned to 1. With offset QPSK.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. 5. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence.
.ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.
Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the UHF band. Industrial. CAPCODE is: a. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. the UHF band only c. require "handoffs" b. In a one-way pager system: a. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. Industrial. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6.12 c. ISM stands for: a. 802. 802. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. Scientific.10 c. Scientific. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. the VHF band only b. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. all of the above ANS: D 5. A typical pager system does not: a. require error detection d. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. transmitters use relatively high power d. POCSAG stands for: a. and Messaging d. the VHF band. all of the above c. IEEE Standard Message b. Pagers use: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. and Medical .
802. infrared band c. infrared band ANS: C 9.11 ANS: B d. Bluetooth uses: a. 802. QPSK d. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. 2 nodes b. Bluetooth uses the: a. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. ISM band b. 2 to 8 nodes d. all of the above c. Basic Service Set b. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. 2 to 16 nodes c. none of the above . VHF band c. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. CDMA b. micronet b. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. all of the above ANS: A 10. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. TDD stands for: a. 10 cm to 100 meters c. BSS stands for: a. CSMA/CD d. ISM band d. Time Delay Difference d.13 8. multinet ANS: D 16. UHF band ANS: C 13. Bluetooth Service System d. scatternet c. TDD net d. Total Distance Delay c. Time-Division Duplex b. 10 cm to 1 meter c.b. CDMA b. VHF band b. UHF band d. CSMA/CA c. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a.
ANS: Post 4. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. Infrared Data Association b. ANS: 10 5. all of the above 20. 10 meters ANS: A 19. can use reflected infrared beams d. several meters d. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. Infrared networks: a. The range of an IRDA system is: a. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.11 6. ANS: capcode 2. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. several hundred meters b. . within 10 feet c. 1 meter b. IRDA stands for: a. several thousand meters. 1 meter c. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. ANS: D COMPLETION 1.b. ANS: TDMA 3. cannot penetrate walls b. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. 10 feet c. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. 1 foot d. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. ANS: 802. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17.
An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: piconet 9. ANS: piconets 10. ANS: 1 meter .ANS: 1 watt 7. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: ISM 8.
none of the above c. glass b. both a and b d. less b. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. 0. in an explosive environment b.4 dB per km b. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. Compared to the core. 0. zero loss ANS: C 8.02 dB c. intersymbol interference d. 1 dB c. waveguide dispersion d. the same c. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. all of the above c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. plastic ANS: A 4. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. 4 db per km d. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. generate EMI d. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. 40 dB per km c. none of the above ANS: B 5. loss b.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. all of the above c. all of the above . dispersion ANS: A 7. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. greater d. modal dispersion b. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. Scattering causes: a. carry current b. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a.
Avalanche Photodiode b.2 db d. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. all of the above ANS: D 11. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b.2 db ANS: A d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. an erg b. ANS: reflection c. E-H current ANS: C 15. ST c. responsivity is measured in: a. LASER stands for: a. In a PIN diode. mA per joule b. SMA b. 1 dB b. an e-v ANS: C 12. 3 dB 9. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. APD stands for: a. 0. µW per amp d. zero-point current d. Avalanche Photo Detector d. 3 dB ANS: B 10. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. For a light detector. 0.b.02 dB c. baseline current c. The quantum of light is called: a. SC d. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. dark current b. 0. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. a phonon . Advanced Photo Detector c. amps per watt c. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________. a photon d. In the core.
ANS: infrared 9. In multimode fiber. With optical fiber. ANS: critical 4. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. ANS: loose-tube 14. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: graded 10. ANS: energy 5. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. For laser diodes. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: linewidth 11. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. ANS: internal 7. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. ANS: sine 6. ANS: intramodal 8. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: Intersymbol 13.2. ANS: time 12. .
ANS: photon 19. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. ANS: pigtail 16. ANS: look . ANS: single 17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: PIN 20. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. ANS: laser 18. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. The quantum of light is called the ____________________.ANS: tight-buffer 15. For safety.
Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. WDM ANS: A 8. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. defect in the glass b. A Soliton is a: a. bit stuffing c. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. FITL stands for: a. type of particle ANS: C 7. Synchronous Optical Network d. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. SDH b. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. FDDI stands for: a.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Simple Optical Network b. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. bit-synch d. FTTC stands for: a. gain margin c. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. excess gain c. none of the above c. type of optical network c. DWDM stands for: a. SONET stands for: a. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Fiber In The Loop b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. type of pulse d.
Synchronous Transport Signal b. all of the above ANS: D 13. STS stands for: a. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. FDDI c. Optical Time-Delay Response b. FTTC d. 100 miles d. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. 10 km ANS: C 10. ANS: Curb 2. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. 1000 miles c. high-speed Ethernet d. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. OTDR stands for: a. not possible c. In SONET. Synchronous Transmission System c.b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Optical Channel one d. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Optical Cable type 1 . FITL b. OC-1 stands for: a. obsolete d. Optical Carrier level one b. common b. system margin ANS: B d. experimental ANS: B 14. 100 km b. FDDI c. Optical Time-Division Relay c. c. overdrive 9. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. In SONET. gigabit Ethernet b. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. Typically.
FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: 51. ANS: erbium 8.84 11. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: Hierarchy 4. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. ANS: pointer 13. ANS: Distributed 7. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: opposite . ANS: Wavelength 5. ANS: token 14. ANS: Synchronous 6. ANS: WDM 10. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: pump 9. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.ANS: Loop 3. ANS: stuffing 12.
ANS: 810 20. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: transport 25. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. In SONET. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. ANS: node 16.15. ANS: multi 17. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 9 22. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 4 23. ANS: 100 M 18. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. ANS: 1 24. ANS: 774 21. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: overhead 19.
1 MHz 2.6 nanoseconds . and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. receiver. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter. ANS: 86.
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