Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d.

Hertz 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2p f c. the phase angle b. f 2p d. none of the above 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency b. the signal-to-noise ratio c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f c b. equal to c l c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation b. Fourier series c. spectrum d. all of the above

13. The baseband bandwidth for a voicegrade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks c. static b. temperature d. all of the above 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. all of the above 17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire b. resistors d. none of the above 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise c. white noise b. pink noise d. partition noise 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power b. equal power per octave d. NOTA 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 V1 + V2 V2) b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 c. VT = sqrt(V1 V2) d. VT = V1 + V2

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits 1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. base time c. charge time b. transit time d. Miller time 2. A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance and resistance only b. capacitance and inductance only c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance d. reactance only 3. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. couple RF around an amplifier c. neutralize amplifiers d. reduce the Miller effect 4. A resonant circuit is: a. a simple form of bandpass filter b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers c. both a and b d. none of the above 5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q d. have no effect on Q 6. The "Miller Effect" can: a. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. cause an amplifier to lose gain c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. all of the above 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. using a common-emitter amplifier b. using a common-base amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. it cannot be avoided 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: a. inductance of collector lead b. collector-to-emitter capacitance c. base-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance

22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, 9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is then divide by noise power usually done with: d. none of the above a. RC coupling c. direct coupling b. transformer coupling d. lumped 23. SINAD is calculated as: reactance a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback c. first add the signal power to the noise power, by: then divide by noise power a. adding feedback out of phase with the d. none of the above unwanted feedback b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: ground plane a. how much noise is in a communications c. decoupling it system d. none of the above b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it signal requires: d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB a. a nonlinear circuit b. a linear amplifier 25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that c. a signal containing harmonics can be modulated are: d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, the desired frequency frequency, and direction b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier frequency, and phase angle requires: a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees

c. both a and b, but at just one frequency d. none of the above 13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider c. an RC time constant d. a piezoelectric crystal 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider c. an RC time constant d. a piezoelectric crystal 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. only built with FETs 17. A varactor is: a. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. a diode c. used in tuner circuits d. all of the above 18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used for a precise frequency b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above 19. If two signals, Va = sin(wat) and Vb = sin(wbt), are fed to a mixer, the output: a. will contain w1 = wa + wb and w2 = wa wb b. will contain w1 = wa / wb and w2 = wb / wa c. will contain w = (wa + wb ) / 2 d. none of the above 20. In a balanced mixer, the output: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. contains the input frequencies c. does not contain the input frequencies d. is a linear mixture of the input signals 21. "VFO" stands for: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator 22. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. same as a mixer Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation 1. AM stands for: a. Audio Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation c. Angle Modulation d. Antenna Modulation

2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the baseband signal b. the carrier signal c. the amplitude signal d. none of the above 3. If the audio Va sin(at) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), then the modulation index, m, is: a. m = a / c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / a 4. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x ct) b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) x mt) + sin(ct) c. v(t) = (Ec x Em) x mt) x ct) d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt)) x ct) 5. Overmodulation causes: a. distortion c. both a and b b. splatter d. none of the above 6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is: a. m = Emin / Emax b. m = Emax / Emin c. m = (Emax Emin) / (Emax + Emin) d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax Emin) 7. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the frequencies: a. c + a and c a b. (c + a)/2 and (c a)/2 c. c + a and 2c + 2a d. none of the above 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: a. equal to the carrier power b. twice the carrier power c. half the carrier power d. 1.414 x 9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz b. 10 kHz d. none of the above 10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver b. the received RF signal to increase c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase d. all of the above 11. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the time-domain signal b. the frequency-domain signal c. both a and b d. none of the above 12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much bandwidth b. requires too much power c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios d. all of the above 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above

14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier b. suppressed-carrier d. NOTA 15. PEP stands for: a. Peak Envelope Power b. Peak Efficiency Power c. Peak Envelope Product d. none of the above 16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation? a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts b. 500 watts d. 0 watts 17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. AM is susceptible to noise b. commercial AM stations use low power c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. all of the above 18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. audio c. digital data b. video d. all of the above 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is: a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 x m2 + m2 x m1) b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 x m1 + m2 x m2) 20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must: a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b b. reinsert the carrier d. NOTA Chapter 4: Angle Modulation 1. The FM modulation index: a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. is equal to twice the deviation 2. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator 3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible 4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra b. Bessel functions c. Taylor series

d. fractals 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule b. Bessel's Rule d. NOTA 6. NBFM stands for: a. National Broadcast FM b. Non-Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM d. Narrowband FM

3. Baseband compression produces: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. a smaller number of signals d. none of the above 4. ALC stands for: a. Amplitude Level Control b. Automatic Level Control c. Accurate Level Control d. none of the above 5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: a. keep the modulation close to 100% b. keep the modulation below 100% c. maximize transmitted power d. all of the above 6. With high-level AM: a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. minimum modulation power is required c. minimum RF power is required d. all of the above 7. With high-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB 8. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power 9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. is complex b. has variable amplitude c. has variable frequency d. all of the above 10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the carrier b. the power level of the modulation c. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. none of the above 11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from: a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier 12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. none of the above 13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. 50 ohms resistive b. 75 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive 14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. pi network c. both a and b b. T network d. a bridge circuit

15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called: a. a heavy load c. a temporary load b. a dummy load d. a test load 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be: a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better b. noninductive d. all of the above 17. A Class D amplifier is: a. very efficient b. essentially pulse-width modulation c. essentially pulse-duration modulation d. all of the above 18. To generate a SSB signal: a. start with full-carrier AM b. start with DSBSC c. start with a quadrature signal d. all of the above 19. The carrier is suppressed in: a. a balanced modulator b. a mixer c. a frequency multiplier d. none of the above 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b b. a crystal filter dNOTA 21. A direct FM modulator: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. integrates the modulating signal c. both a and b d. none of the above 22. An indirect FM modulator: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. both a and b d. none of the above 23. AFC stands for: a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. Automatic Frequency Centering c. Automatic Frequency Control d. Audio Frequency Control 24. Frequency multipliers are: a. essentially balanced modulators b. essentially Class C amplifiers c. essentially mixers d. none of the above 25. With mixing: a. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value d. the deviation is altered Chapter 6: Receivers 1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the spurious response and the tracking d. the signal and the noise

7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called: a. the capture effect c. the noise effect b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect 8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the capture effect b. the threshold effect c. the "two-station" effect d. none of the above 9. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations 10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the time delay between the L and R channels d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used 11. FM stereo: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. is implemented using an SCA signal c. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. is not compatible with mono FM 12. An SCA signal: a. can use amplitude modulation b. can use FM modulation c. is monaural d. all of the above 13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. only by using Bessel functions Chapter 5: Transmitters 1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. agility c. VFO b. expansion d. spread-spectrum 2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. is a measure of efficiency b. heats the transmitter c. may require water cooling d. all of the above

2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. Foster c. Armstrong b. Seeley d. Hertz 3. Trimmers and padders are: a. two types of adjusting tools b. small adjustable resistors c. small adjustable inductors d. small adjustable capacitors 4. "Skin effect" refers to: a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. none of the above 5. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tuner c. the mixer b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above 6. "IF" stands for: a. intermediate frequency b. intermodulation frequency c. indeterminate frequency d. image frequency 7. AGC stands for: a. Audio Gain Control b. Automatic Gain Control c. Active Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion 8. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. is above the RF frequency b. is below the RF frequency c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz. 9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. it increases sensitivity c. it increases selectivity d. it is cheaper 10. Basically, sensitivity measures: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. none of the above 11. Basically, selectivity measures: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer 12. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal b. a value of 0.707 is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal d. there is no ideal value 13. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4

b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 c. both values are basically equivalent d. none of the above 14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers b. the detector d. all of the above 15. Phase distortion is important in: a. voice communications systems b. color video receivers c. monochrome video receivers d. all of the above 16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. the AGC b. noise generated in the receiver c. the dynamic range of the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used 17. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF 18. An image must be rejected: a. prior to mixing b. prior to IF amplification c. prior to detection d. images cannot be rejected 19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. none of the above 20. A common AM detector is the: a. PLL c. ratio detector b. envelope detector d. all of the above 21. An FM detector is the: a. PLL b. ratio detector c. quadrature detector d. all of the above 22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above 23. A common SSB detector is: a. a PLL c. a BFO b. a diode d. a product detector 24. BFO stands for: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator

25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to: a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. reinject the carrier c. use double conversion d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC 26. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. carrier detection b. coherent detection c. envelope detection d. ratio detection 27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above 28. The function of a limiter is: a. to remove amplitude variations b. to limit spurious responses c. to limit dynamic range d. to limit noise response 29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. AGC c. AFC b. squelch d. limiting 30. LNA stands for: a. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. Low-Noise Amplifier Noise Amplification c. Low-Noise Audio d. Logarithmic

31. AFC stands for: a. Audio Frequency Compensator b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation c. Automatic Frequency Control d. Autonomous Frequency Control 32. The function of AFC is: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. none of the above 33. SAW stands for: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Surface Acoustic Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Software-Activated Wave 34. The important property of a SAW is: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. it allows software radios to be built c. it is a stable bandpass filter d. none of the above 35. The main function of the AGC is to: a. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. all of the above 36. DSP stands for: a. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Direct Signal Phase c. Distorted Signal Packet d. Digital Signal Processor 37. SINAD stands for: a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion

c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio 38. TRF stands for: a. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Tracking Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function Chapter 7: Digital Communications 1. The first digital code was the: a. ASCII code c. Morse code b. Baudot code d. none of the above 2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater b. a filter d. all of the above 3. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Time-Domain Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester d. Ten Dual-Manchester 4. Hartley's Law is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax 5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax 6. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax 7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax 8. Natural Sampling does not use: a. a sample-and-hold circuit b. true binary numbers c. a fixed sample rate d. an analog-to-digital converter 9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. They are two types of sampling error. b. You can have one or the other, but not both. c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. d. They are the same thing. 10. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. noise b. too many samples per second c. too few samples per second d. all of the above 11. The immediate result of sampling is: a. a sample alias c. PCM b. PAM d. PDM 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. PDM c. PPM b. PWM d. PPS 13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. decreases as the sample rate increases b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. decreases as the bits per sample increases

d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases 14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. none of the above 15. Companding is used to: a. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bitrate low d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission 16. In North America, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law b. the A Law c. the Law (alpha law) d. the Law (mu law) 17. In Europe, companding uses: a. the Logarithmic Law b. the A Law c. the Law (alpha law) d. the Law (mu law) 18. Codec stands for: a. Coder-Decoder b. Coded-Carrier c. Code-Compression d. none of the above 19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers 20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation: a. transmits fewer bits per sample b. requires a much higher sampling rate c. can suffer slope overload d. all of the above 21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when: a. the signal changes too rapidly b. the signal does not change c. the bit rate is too high d. the sample is too large 22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality c. only over shorter distances d. only if the voice is band-limited 23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ 24. Manchester coding: a. is a biphase code b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. provides strong timing information d. all of the above

25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors b. carry signaling c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. all of the above 27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. detect errors b. carry signaling c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. all of the above 28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 8 29. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 8 k c. 64 k b. 56 k d. 1.544 x 106 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s 31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s 32. A T-1 cable uses: a. Manchester coding b. bipolar RZ AMI coding c. NRZ coding d. pulse-width coding

33. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 48 34. A typical T-1 line uses: a. twisted-pair wire b. coaxial cable c. fiber-optic cable d. microwave 35. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. on-hook/off-hook condition b. busy signal c. ringing d. all of the above 36. A vocoder implements compression by: a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. using lossless techniques 37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. much better b. somewhat better c. about the same d. not as good Chapter 8: The Telephone System 1. DTMF stands for: a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Dial Tone Master Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency

2. PSTN stands for: a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Private Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers 3. POTS stands for: a. Private Office Telephone System b. Primary Office Telephone Service c. Primary Operational Test System d. Plain Old Telephone Service 4. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area b. Local Access Telephone Area c. Local Area Telephone Access d. Local Area Transport Access 5. A LATA is a: a. a local calling area b. a type of digital local network c. a way of accessing a tandem office d. a way of accessing a central office 6. Central offices are connected by: a. local loops c. both a and b b. trunk lines d. none of the above 7. Local loops terminate at: a. a tandem office c. a central office b. a toll station d. an interexchange office 8. Call blocking: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded 9. In telephony, POP stands for: a. Post Office Protocol b. Point Of Presence c. Power-On Protocol d. none of the above 10. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable d. fiber-optic 11. FITL stands for: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. Framing In The Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop 12. Loading coils were used to: a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. reduce crosstalk d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop 13. DC current flows through a telephone: a. when it is on hook b. when it is off hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. only when it is ringing 14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA

15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. step-by-step switching control b. crossbar control c. common control d. ESS 16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" b. prevent "singing" c. allow signals to be multiplexed d. all of the above 19. VNL stands for: a. voltage net loss b. volume net loss c. via net loss d. voice noise level

29. ISDN stands for: a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. Information Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network d. Information Systems Digital Network 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. it took to long to develop b. it is too slow c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. all of the above 31. ADSL stands for: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Access to Data Services Line 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a. much faster b. about the same speed c. much more expensive d. none of the above Chapter 9: Data Transmission 1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent: a. over short distances only b. usually over long distances c. over any distance d. usually over a coaxial cable 2. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot 3. Data codes are also called: a. character codes b. character sets c. they do not have any other name d. both a and b 4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. FIGS data c. numerical data b. binary data d. all of the above 5. Character codes include: a. alphanumeric characters b. data link control characters c. graphic control characters d. all of the above 6. ASCII stands for: a. American Standard Character-set 2 b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange 7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of: a. nonstandard character codes b. escape characters c. control characters d. none of the above 8. LF stands for: a. Line Feed b. Link Feed c. Line Forward d. Link Forward

20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. eliminate reflections b. prevent oscillation c. improve signal-to-noise ratio d. reduce power consumption 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 1 mW c. 1 pW b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 6 c. 24 b. 12 d. 60 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. supergroups c. jumbogroups b. mastergroups d. all of the above 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: a. SSB c. PDM b. DSBSC d. PCM 25. PABX stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange 26. SLIC stands for: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Standard Line Interface Card c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: a. provide synchronization b. carry signaling c. cancel echoes d. check for errors 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. compensation c. justification b. rectification d. frame alignment

9. UART stands for: a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. Unidirectional Asynchronous ReceiverTransmitter c. Unaltered Received Text d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text 10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous" 11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to zero b. equal to one bit-time c. equal to the start and stop bit-times d. not a set length 12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. much longer than asynchronous frames c. 128 bytes long d. 1024 bytes long 13. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. all of the above 14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits b. the data bits d. a separate clock line 15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the channel must be noise-free 16. BISYNC: a. is an IBM product b. is a character-oriented protocol c. requires the use of DLE d. all of the above 17. HDLC: a. is an IBM product b. is a bit-oriented protocol c. is identical to SDLC d. all of the above 18. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. "bit-stuffing" b. different flags at either end of a frame c. FEC d. ARQ 19. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. automatic request for resynchronization b. automatic request for retransmission c. automatic receiver queue

d. automatic request for queue 20. ARQ is used to: a. correct bit errors b. correct synchronization problems c. put data into a temporary buffer d. none of the above 21. FEC stands for: a. Fixed Error Control b. Forward Error Control c. Forward Error Correction d. False Error Condition 22. VRC is another name for: a. FEC c. LRC b. ARQ d. parity 23. CRC stands for: a. Control Receiver Code b. Correct Received Character c. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. Cycle Repeat Character 24. Huffman codes: a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed 25. Run-length encoding is used to: a. encrypt data c. correct data b. compress data d. none of the above 26. Public-key encryption: a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem" b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above 27. SDLC stands for: a. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Synchronous Data Line Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Synchronous Data Line Character 28. HDLC is: a. a bit-oriented protocol b. based on SDLC c. an ISO standard d. all of the above

5. Dumb terminals are still used: a. in token-passing networks b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. none of the above 6. In a circuit-switched network: a. communication is half-duplex only b. each channel carries only one data stream c. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. all of the above 7. Each computer on a network is called a: a. hub c. node b. token d. circuit 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, tokenpassing rings are: a. slower c. not as widely used b. more expensive d. all of the above 9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. a central ring c. a node b. a central bus d. none of the above 10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. packets c. carriers b. nodes d. tokens 11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access 12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: a. a collision c. excess traffic b. contention d. multiple access 13. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. CSMA c. token-passing b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions 14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. nodes c. packets b. users d. collisions 15. The effect of too many collisions is: a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats b. the network slows down d. data is lost 16. MAU stands for: a. Multistation Access Unit b. Multiple Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. none of the above 17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3 b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E 18. Ethernet was invented by: a. IBM c. Xerox b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation

Chapter 10: Local Area Networks 1. CSMA stands for: a. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access c. Carrier Server Master Application d. none of the above 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. Carrier Detection b. Carrier Delay c. Collision Detection d. Collision Delay 3. The Internet is: a. a network of networks b. a very large client-server network c. a very large CSMA/CD network d. not really a network at all 4. Most LANs: a. are based on Ethernet b. use CSMA/CD c. use UTP cable d. all of the above

19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding 20. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. fiber-optic cable b. twisted-pair copper wires c. RG-58U coaxial cable d. 50-ohm coaxial cable 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. the cable carries baseband signals b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. none of the above 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above 24. NIC stands for: a. Network Interface Card b. Network Interface Cable c. Network Interface Code d. Network Internal Code 25. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. a BNC connector b. a T connector c. an RJ45 connector d. an RS11 connector 26. UTP stands for: a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. Unicode Text Packet 27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables: a. are cheaper b. are easier to crimp connectors onto c. allow faster bit rates d. all of the above 28. A hub: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks 29. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are more common in token-passing networks

30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. it is faster when used in large networks c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. all of the above 31. Broadband LANs: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. use coaxial cables c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above 32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b b. client-server networks d. NOTA 33. Record locking is used to: a. store records securely on a server b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. none of the above 34. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. UNIX-based c. multitasking b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified 35. A "thin" client is: a. basically, a PC with no disk drives b. a node that rarely sends data c. same as a "dumb" terminal d. all of the above Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet 1. MAN stands for: a. Manchester Access Network b. Multiple-Area Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network 2. Packet switching is based on: a. store-and-forward b. switched circuits c. real-time delivery d. all of the above 3. SNA stands for: a. Standard Network Access b. Small Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture d. Systems Network Architecture 4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. 3 c. 7 b. 5 d. 8 5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. physical layer c. cable layer b. link layer d. transport layer 6. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. frame layer c. error-check layer b. physical layer d. link layer 7. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. user c. network b. link layer d. frame

8. Frame Relay: a. is faster than X.25 b. does less error checking than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets d. all of the above 9. ATM stands for: a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Automatic Test Mode 10. A bridge: a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. looks at the address of each packet c. operate at the data-link level d. all of the above 11. IP stands for: a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure 12. TCP stands for: a. Transmission Control Process b. Transmission Control Protocol c. Transfer Connection Protocol d. none of the above 13. Together, TCP/IP consists of: a. 5 layers c. an application and a process b. 7 layers d. datagrams 14. IP is a: a. connection-oriented protocol b. virtual circuit c. connectionless protocol d. non-robust protocol 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. is essentially forever b. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. is approximately 200 milliseconds 16. UDP stands for: a. User Datagram Protocol b. User Data Protocol c. User Data Packet d. Universal Data Packet 17. HTTP stands for: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. Hypertext Transport Protocol 18. HTTP allows the use of: a. dumb terminals b. file transport c. browsers d. NOTA

19. HTML stands for: a. Hypertext Markup Language b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language 20. HTML allows: a. telneting c. web page layout b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above 21. FTP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure

b. File Transport Protocol

d. Fast Transport Packet

22. FTP is used to: a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. none of the above 23. SMTP stands for: a. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Simple Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure 24. ISP stands for: a. Internet Service Protocol b. Internet Service Provider c. Internet Service Procedure d. none of the above 25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. a 32-bit binary number b. four groups of base-ten numbers c. running out of available values d. all of the above 26. DNS stands for: a. Domain Name Server b. Domain Name System c. Domain Numbering System d. Domain Naming System 27. A DNS: a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. translates words to numbers c. stores all domain addresses d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure 28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. a DNS c. a "firewall" b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols 29. OSI stands for: a. Open Systems Interconnection b. Open Standard Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet d. none of the above Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems 1. FSK stands for: a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. NOTA 2. PSK stands for: a. Pulse-Signal Keying b. Pulse-Shift Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying 3. QAM stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. none of the above 4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in: a. amperes c. bits b. amperes per second d. bits per second

5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the: a. margin of noise b. modulation index c. number of possible states per symbol d. maximum number of symbols per second 6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. the eye is maximally open b. the eye is maximally closed c. the eye is half open d. the eye alternately opens and closes 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. too many bits high b. too many bits low c. intermodulation distortion d. intersymbol interference 8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. FSK c. PSK b. AFSK d. QAM 9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains: a. a byte c. a dibit b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit 10. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses: a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees c. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4 d. double phase-shift angles 11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows: a. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols d. all of the above 12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. amplitude and frequency b. amplitude and phase angle c. frequency and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits 13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK 14. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. International Telephony Unit b. International Telephony Union c. International Telecommunications Union d. International Telecommunications Units 15. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. CCITT c. IEEE b. the U.N. d. ANSI 16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. noise and interference b. uneven phase and frequency response c. low SNR d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel

17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence b. random bits d. a random sequence 18. The V.90 standard is issued by: a. the EIA c. the ITU b. the TIA d. the ISO 19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all: a. data-compression schemes b. error-correction protocols c. both a and b d. none of the above 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both: a. data-compression schemes b. error-correction protocols c. both a and b d. none of the above 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using: a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b b. XON/XOFF characters d. NOTA 22. The official name for RS-232C is: a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C 23. In RS-232, a modem would be: a. a DTR c. a DCE b. a DSR d. a DTE 24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be: a. a DTR c. a DCE b. a DSR d. a DTE 25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin: a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. TD and RD b. TD, RD, and signal ground c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground 28. Hardware flow control uses: a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD 29. Software flow control uses: a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD 30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. +15 volts c. +9 volts b. +12 volts d. all of the above 31. DSL stands for: a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop 32. ADSL stands for: a. Asynchronous DSL b. Asymmetrical DSL c. Analog DSL d. All DSL

33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for: a. Head Frequency Control

b. Hybrid Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. Hybrid Fiber Control 34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for: a. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Cable Modem Transmission System c. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite b. ADSL d. NOTA Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques 1. TDMA stands for: a. Time Domain Multiple Access b. Time-Division Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access d. none of the above 2. CDMA stands for: a. Code-Division Multiple Access b. Carrier Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. none of the above 3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. all the signals come from the same source b. the signals come from different sources c. TDM is used in RF communications d. they mean the same thing 4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is: a. the type of media used b. the length of the channel c. the bandwidth of each signal d. all of the above 5. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 12 channels b. 24 channels c. 32 channels d. 64 channels

c. direct-sequence method d. all of the above 13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. frequency-hopping c. direct-sequence method d. all of the above 14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use: a. about the same bandwidth b. much more bandwidth c. much less bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth 15. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. RF gain b. computer speed c. spreading gain d. improved signal-to-noise ratio 16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. the digital data bit rate b. bandwidth of original baseband c. the S/N ratio d. the chip size 17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spreadspectrum would be: a. a narrowband receiver b. a wideband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver d. a CDMA receiver 18. A receiver for direct-sequence spreadspectrum would be: a. a narrowband receiver b. a wideband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver 19. CDMA: a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. cannot be used on an RF channel d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously 20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of: a. orthogonal PN sequences b. non-orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences d. none of the above Chapter 14: Transmission Lines 1. SWR stands for: a. Shorted Wave Radiation b. Sine Wave Response c. Shorted Wire Region d. none of the above 2. TDR stands for: a. Total Distance of Reflection b. Time-Domain Reflectometer c. Time-Domain Response d. Transmission Delay Ratio 3. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. a coaxial cable b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable

c. an open-wire-line cable d. all of the above 4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. lumped c. equal reactances b. distributed d. ideal elements 5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire: a. increases c. stays the same b. decreases d. changes periodically 6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. I2R loss c. the skin effect b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect 7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. increases c. stays the same b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric 8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot 9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be: a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0 b. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms 10. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. increases with length b. increases with frequency c. increases with voltage d. none of the above 11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. the wire resistance b. the dielectric constant c. the inductance per foot d. all of the above 12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all 13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all 14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all

6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps 7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a: a. timing bit c. signaling bit b. T-bit d. framing bit 8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. every frame c. every sixth frame b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame 9. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. time switching c. line switching b. space switching d. cross-point switching 10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. time switching c. signal switching b. space switching d. crosspoint switching 11. A digital space switch is a: a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger switch b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch 12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. frequency-hopping

15. The optimum value for SWR is: a. zero c. as large as possible b. one d. there is no optimum value 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. standing waves b. loss of power to load c. higher voltage peaks on cable d. all of the above 17. VSWR stands for: a. variable SWR b. vacuum SWR c. voltage SWR d. NOTA

d. all of the above 4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. high power levels c. reuse of frequencies b. high antennas d. all of the above 5. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. radio waves c. gamma waves b. light d. all of the above 6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. perpendicular to each other b. perpendicular to the direction of travel c. both a and b d. none of the above 7. TEM stands for: a. Transverse Electromagnetic b. Transmitted Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic d. none of the above 8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of: a. 3 x b. 300 x d. 300 x

16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. a flat body of water 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. reflection c. refraction b. diffusion d. diffraction 18. Space waves are: a. line-of-sight b. reflected off the ionosphere c. same as sky waves d. radio waves used for satellite communications 19. Sky waves: a. are line-of-sight b. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. are same as space waves d. are radio waves used for satellite communications 20. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone b. far from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone 21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. fading c. frequency diversity b. diffraction d. spatial diversity 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. fading c. multipath distortion b. diffraction d. cancellation due to reflection 23. A "repeater" is used to: a. send a message multiple times over a channel b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. extend the range of a radio communications system d. cancel the effects of fading 24. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. high power c. the radio horizon b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies 25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. the cell area is increased b. the cell area is split c. the power levels are increased d. the number of channels is reduced 26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. a "handoff" process occurs b. a "sectoring" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call d. nothing occurs 27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers b. a "rake" receiver d. NOTA 28. The troposphere is the: a. highest layer of the atmosphere b. middle layer of the atmosphere c. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere

18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance b. is zero d. 50 ohms 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. transmission line impedances b. propagation velocity c. optimum length of a transmission line d. transmission line losses 20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. would be less c. would be the same b. would be more d. cannot be compared 21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. directly c. by using a "balun" b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected 22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by: a. assuming it to be zero d. dividing it by Z0 23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. the voltage c. the impedance b. the current d. none of the above 24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. zero c. the characteristic impedance b. one d. none of the above 25. A TDR is commonly used to: a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. find the position of a defect in a cable c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation 1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. Hertz d. Marconi 2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. Hertz d. Marconi 3. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. the microprocessor chip b. the miniature cell-site c. high-power microwave transmitters

9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. vertical c. circular b. horizontal d. all of the above 10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. vertical c. circular b. horizontal d. all of the above 11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. many 12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. an isotropic radiator b. a vertically polarized radiator c. a ground-wave antenna d. none of the above 13. EIRP stands for: a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power 14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront 15. Ground waves are most effective: a. below about 2 MHz b. above about 20 MHz c. at microwave frequencies d. when using horizontally polarized waves

29. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. used for radio telephony b. used to send data by radio c. also called "ducting" d. not possible Chapter 16: Antenna 1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. the radiated signal c. the SWR b. the reflected signal d. all of the above 2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above 3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. one wavelength b. one half-wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength 4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. standing wave pattern around the antenna b. SWR along the feed cable c. radiation resistance of the antenna d. I2R loss of the antenna 5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. in one direction b. in two directions c. in all directions d. depends on the number of elements 6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. directivity c. active antenna b. selectivity d. resonance 7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. 0 dB c. 10 dB b. 3 dB d. infinite 8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: b. from front to back c. between half-power points d. between the minor side-lobes 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long

12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick" b. folded dipole d. none of the above 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases b. the number of nodes decreases c. efficiency decreases d. none of the above 18. Arrays can be: a. phased c. parasitic b. driven d. all of the above 19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter Chapter 17: Microwave Devices 1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz

2. The UHF range is: a. below the microwave range b. inside the microwave range c. above the microwave range d. same as the microwave range 3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. the shape of the waveguide b. the power level of the signal c. the point of signal injection d. none of the above 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: a. TE 01 c. TE 10 b. TM 01 d. TM10 5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. TE 01 c. TE 11 b. TM 01 d. TM11 6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient 7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. is fixed b. depends on the frequency it carries c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. both b and c 8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. with a magnetic field probe b. with an electric field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide d. all of the above 9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. their insertion loss b. their coupling specification c. their directivity d. all of the above 10. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. couple sections of waveguide b. couple waveguides to antennas c. couple components on a circuit board d. none of the above 11. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. tuned circuit c. antenna b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above 12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above 13. TWT stands for: a. Transverse Wave Transmission b. Transverse-Wave Tube c. Traveling-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission 14. An "isolator" is a device that: a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. separates signals among various ports

d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide 15. A "circulator" is a device that: a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. separates signals among various ports d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide 16. GaAs stands for: a. gallium arsenide b. gallium assembly c. gallium astenite d. NOTA

Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems 1. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. section c. skip b. hop d. jump 2. Microwave systems use: a. FM c. QAM b. SSB d. all of the above 3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. 90% c. 99.9% b. 99% d. 99.99% 4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. 2 watts c. 200 watts b. 20 watts d. none of the above 5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: a. reliability c. jitter b. noise level d. all of the above 6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: a. reliability c. jitter b. noise level d. all of the above 7. LOS stands for: a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal 8. Too much antenna gain causes: a. a very narrow microwave beam b. a very wide microwave beam c. excessive noise d. jitter 9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. 60% of the Faraday zone b. 60% of the Fresnel zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower d. 60% of the highest obstacle height 10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. none of the above 11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. low level of transmitted power b. high level of ERP c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio 12. Fading is caused by: a. multipath reception c. ducting b. attenuation due to weather d. AOTA 13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. diversity c. high-gain antennas b. power d. all of the above 14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. always c. above 10 GHz

b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz 15. Microwave repeaters can be: a. IF type c. regenerative type b. baseband type d. all of the above 16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave systemis a. less bandwidth is required b. accumulation of noise is reduced c. it requires less power d. all of the above 17. MMDS stands for: a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems 18. LMDS stands for: a. Local Microwave Distribution System b. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System 19. LMDS is: a. bidirectional b. unidirectional above Chapter 19: Television 1. NTSC stands for: a. National Television Systems Commission b. National Television Systems Committee c. National Television Systems Council d. Nippon Television Systems Commission 2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. FCC c. EIA b. IRE d. IEEE 3. RGB stands for: a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue 4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 525 c. 1024 b. 625 d. 1250 5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 25 c. 50 b. 30 d. 60 7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625 b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525 8. Luminance refers to: a. brightness c. chroma b. contrast d. raster 9. Luminance is measured in: a. foot-candles c. IRE units b. lumins d. NTSC units 10. The maximum luminance level is called: a. max white c. all white b. peak white d. whiter than white c. multidirectional d. none of the

17. IMPATT stands for: a. impact avalanche and transit time b. induced mobility at transmission time c. implied power at transmission terminal d. none of the above 18. YIG stands for: a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. none of the above 19. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. an electric field b. a magnetic field c. mechanical pressure d. an "exciter" signal 20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. YIG 21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. YIG 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. YIG 23. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. slots c. Fresnel lenses b. Yagis d. all of the above 24. RADAR stands for: a. radio ranging b. radio depth and ranging c. radio detection and ranging d. remote detection and ranging 25. RADAR uses: a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect b. continuous transmission d. all of the above 26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. increases with increasing repetition rate b. decreases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period d. none of the above 27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. increases with increasing pulse duration b. decreases with increasing pulse duration c. is always a tenth of the maximum range d. none of the above

11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black 12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. whiter than white b. black d. blacker than black 13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. maintain horizontal sync b. maintain vertical sync c. equalize the DC level d. all of the above 14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution: a. is greater than vertical resolution b. is about the same as vertical resolution c. is less than vertical resolution d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines 15. The smallest picture element is called a: a. dot c. pixel b. pic d. none of the above 16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to: a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component d. a method of demodulating stereo sound 17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is: a. much greater b. about the same c. much less d. resolution does not apply to color 18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM 19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM 21. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. detect the presence of a color video signal b. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. all of the above 22. SAP stands for: a. separate audio program b. separate audio pulse c. sync amplitude pulse d. sync audio pulse

23. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. the isolation transformer b. the video transformer c. the flyback transformer d. the yoke 24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. about the same c. much lower b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal 26. AFPC stands for: a. allowed full picture chroma b. automatic frequency and phase control c. automatic frequency and picture control d. none of the above Chapter 20: Satellite Communications 1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity 2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,: a. apogee and perigee b. perigee and apogee c. uplink and downlink d. downlink and uplink 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. earth station c. footprint b. downlink d. plate 4. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. is constant b. is zero (freefall) c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. azimuth and elevation b. azimuth and declination c. declination and elevation d. apogee and perigee 6. The power per transponder of a typical Kuband satellite is in the range: a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit 7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. 101 watts c. 103 watts b. 102 watts d. 104 watts

8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. transponders c. solar cells b. batteries d. all of the above 9. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. antenna maintenance b. power-level adjustments c. orbital adjustments d. none of the above 10. DBS stands for: a. decibels of signal b. down-beam signal c. direct-broadcast system d. direct-broadcast satellite 11. LNA stands for: a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude b. low north angle d. low-noise array 12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. backdown c. power-down b. backoff d. EIRP drop 13. TVRO stands for: a. television receive only b. television repeater only c. television remote origin d. none of the above 14. TDMA stands for: a. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. television distribution master antenna c. time-division multiple access d. transmit delay minimum aperture 15. VSAT stands for: a. video satellite b. video signal antenna terminal c. very small antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses: a. high power to a small antenna b. low power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna d. LEO satellites 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. star c. ring b. mesh d. repeater 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites b. tracking dish antennas c. very high power d. all of the above 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. NOTA Chapter 21: Cellular Radio 1. AMPS stand for: a. American Mobile Phone System b. Analog Mobile Phone Service c. Advanced Mobile Phone System

d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service 2. PCS stands for: a. Personal Communications Service b. Personal Communications Systems c. Personal Cell phone Service d. Portable Communications Systems 3. RCC stands for: a. Radio Common Carrier b. Radio Cellular Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier d. none of the above 4. MSC stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center b. Mobile Service Cellular c. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Minimum Signal Carrier 5. MTSO stands for: a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out 6. MIN stands for: a. Manual Identification Number b. Mobile Identification Number c. Maximum In-band Noise d. Minimum In-band Noise 7. NAM stands for: a. Numerical Access Mode b. Numerical Assignment Mode c. Number Access Module d. Number Assignment Module 8. ESN stands for: a. Electronic Serial Number b. Emitted Signal Number c. Emission Strength Number d. none of the above 9. SCM stands for: a. Service Class Mark b. Station Class Mark c. Signal Class Mark d. Serial-Code Mode 10. SCM identifies the: a. code number of a cell phone b. base-station class c. signal classification (analog or digital) d. maximum power level of a cell phone 11. SID stands for: a. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. Standard Identification Number c. System Identification Number d. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. recognize an AMPS system c. set its transmitted power level d. recognize that it is "roaming" 13. DCC stands for: a. Digital Color Code b. Digital Communications Code c. Digital Communications Carrier d. Direct Channel Code

14. SAT stands for: a. Station Antenna Tower b. Supervisory Audio Tone c. Supervisory Access Tone d. none of the above 15. CMAC stands for: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. Control Mobile Access Code c. Central Mobile Access Control d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control 16. The CMAC is used to: a. control access to the cell site b. set the access code of the cell phone c. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone 17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using: a. AM c. FSK b. FM d. CDMA 18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using: a. AM c. FSK b. FM d. CDMA 19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. less than 600 W. c. between 1 and 2 watts b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts 20. BSC stands for: a. Base Station Controller b. Base Signal Controller c. Basic Service Contract d. Basic Service Code 21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. BSC c. RF interface b. MTSO d. air interface 22. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. 2 km c. as small as possible b. 0.5 km d. none of the above 23. Phone traffic is measured in: a. calls c. number of users b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls 24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. increase the number of cells b. decrease the number of cells c. increase the ERP d. decrease the ERP 25. CDPD stands for: a. Code-Division Packet Data b. Cellular Digital Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems 1. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. first-generation c. third-generation b. second-generation d. digitalgeneration 2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. 800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz b. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz

3. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. from the base to the mobile b. from the mobile to the base c. from mobile to mobile d. same as the uplink 4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are: a. bigger c. distributed b. smaller d. higher-power 5. AMPS was designed for: a. POTS c. use built into an automobile b. voice d. all of the above 6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. many 7. CDMA technology was invented by: a. AT&T c. Bell Labs b. Lucent d. Qualcomm 8. GSM is used in: a. Asia c. North America b. Europe d. all of the above 9. In GSM, voice channels are called: a. traffic channels c. bearer channels b. voice channels d. talking channels 10. AMPS uses: a. CDMA b. TDMA c. spread-spectrum d. none of the above

11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. less than in a TDMA phone b. no better than in an AMPS phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone d. no better than a TDMA phone 12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. no PCS system c. TDMA only b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA 13. GSM uses: a. frequency hopping b. direct-sequence modulation 14. In GSM, SIM stands for: a. Short Inbound Message b. Subscriber-Initiated Message c. Subscriber ID Module d. Subscriber ID Method 15. IMSI stands for: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. Intermodulation System Interference 16. IS-95 uses: a. frequency hopping b. TDMA 17. IS-136 uses: a. frequency hopping b. TDMA c. CDMA d. all of the above c. CDMA d. all of the above c. CDMA d. AOTA

18. In CDMA: a. all frequencies are used in all cells b. each cell uses half the available frequencies

c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone 19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. common c. rotating b. unique d. orthogonal 20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. faster data rates c. wider roaming area b. Internet access d. all of the above Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking 1. Pagers use: a. the VHF band only b. the UHF band only c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band 2. ISM stands for: a. IEEE Standard Message b. IEEE Secure Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical 3. CAPCODE is: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers 4. In a one-way pager system: a. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. transmitters use relatively high power d. all of the above 5. POCSAG stands for: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group 6. A typical pager system does not: a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above 7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. 802.10 c. 802.12 b. 802.11 d. 802.13 8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. VHF band c. ISM band b. UHF band d. infrared band 9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above 10. BSS stands for: a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System b. Basic Service System d. none of the above

11. Bluetooth uses: a. CDMA b. frequency hopping 12. Bluetooth uses the: a. VHF band b. UHF band 13. TDD stands for: a. Time-Division Duplex b. Time-Delayed Duplex c. Time Delay Difference d. Total Distance Delay

c. QPSK d. all of the above c. ISM band d. infrared band

b. dispersion

d. all of the above

7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. 40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km b. 4 db per km d. zero loss 8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB 9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB 10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. ST c. SMA b. SC d. all of the above 11. The quantum of light is called: a. an erg c. a photon b. an e-v d. a phonon 12. LASER stands for: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays 13. APD stands for: a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector 14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. baseline current c. dark current b. zero-point current d. E-H current 15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in: a. amps per watt c. mA per joule b. W per amp d. sec per W Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems 1. FDDI stands for: a. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface 2. FITL stands for: a. Fiber In The b. Fiber Input Timing Loss Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Input Timing Loop 3. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Fiber To The Curb 4. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. Standard Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network

14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes 15. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. micronet c. TDD net b. multinet d. scatternet 16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet 17. IRDA stands for: a. Infrared Data Association b. Infrared Digital Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. Infrared Roaming Data Area 18. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 meter c. 1 foot b. 10 meters d. 10 feet 19. Infrared networks: a. cannot penetrate walls b. can use diffused infrared beams c. can use reflected infrared beams d. all of the above 20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters b. several meters d. several thousand meters. Chapter 24: Fiber Optics 1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. the same c. less b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction 2. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. carry current c. generate EMI b. cause crosstalk d. all of the above 3. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. glass c. both a and b b. plastic d. none of the above 4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. in an explosive environment b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. none of the above 5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. modal dispersion c. waveguide dispersion b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above 6. Scattering causes: a. loss c. intersymbol interference

d. none of the above 5. DWDM stands for: a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing 6. A Soliton is a: a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse b. type of particle d. type of optical network 7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. bit stuffing c. SDH b. bit-synch d. WDM 8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. gain margin c. excess gain b. system margin d. overdrive 9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiberoptic cable lengths up to: a. 1000 miles c. 100 km b. 100 miles d. 10 km 10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for: a. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Coupler unidirectional c. Optical Channel one d. Optical Cable type 1 11. In SONET, STS stands for: a. Synchronous Transport Signal b. Synchronous Transport System c. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Synchronous Transmission System 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. common c. obsolete b. experimental d. not possible 14. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Optical Time-Division Relay 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FDDI c. FITL b. FTTC d. SONET